KAPLAN FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
VERSIONS A & B: COMPREHENSIVE
200-QUESTION PRACTICE EXAM WITH
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+
(NEWEST)
1. The nurse helps a client to cough and deep breathe after surgery. It is
desirable for the client to assume which position?
• A. Side-lying
• B. Prone
• C. Supine with one pillow
• D. High Fowler's
Rationale: High Fowler's position allows for maximum lung expansion, which is
essential for effective deep breathing and coughing.
2. The nurse identifies which diet best meets the needs of a person with
multiple wounds?
• A. High-protein, low-fat, high-iron diet
• B. High-vitamin C, high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis and wound healing. Protein
provides the building blocks for tissue repair. Carbohydrates provide energy so
protein is used for healing rather than being broken down for energy.
3. The nurse identifies which lab finding reflects the signs and symptoms of
infection?
• A. Serum creatinine level of 2.4 mg/dL
• B. AST (SGOT) 15u/L
• C. White blood cell count of 16,000/mm³
Rationale: Normal WBC count is 5,000-10,000/mm³; an elevation (leukocytosis)
indicates infection.
4. The nurse understands which behavior is helpful to facilitate a client to have
a bowel elimination?
, • A. Engage in sedentary activity
• B. Increase dietary bulk
Rationale: Foods containing cellulose (whole wheat bread, fruits, grains) increase
stool bulk and promote peristalsis.
5. The nurse knows which statement is an important fact about warfarin?
• A. It has a prolonged action
Rationale: Warfarin has a duration of action of 2-5 days. It is given orally, not
parenterally.
6. To promote evening rest and sleep for clients who are immobilized and in
bed, it is most important for the nurse to provide which care?
• A. Privacy
• B. Back rubs
• C. Daily baths
• D. Daytime activities
Rationale: Daytime activities reduce daytime napping, provide relief from tension,
and enable the client to relax and sleep at night.
7. A client with acute pain has a health care provider's order for morphine 8 mg
IV every 3-4 hrs prn for pain. The client asks the nurse for medication at
bedtime. Prior to administering the pain medication, the nurse should take
which action?
• A. Assume the pain is psychological
• B. Check to see if the client has a history of addiction
• C. Try several other pain relief measures
• D. Assess location, character, and intensity of pain
Rationale: The nurse must always assess the client's pain characteristics (location,
onset, duration, intensity) before implementing any pain relief measures.
8. Which action is essential for the nurse to take after administration of
preoperative medication to a client?
• A. Ensure the operative permit is signed
• B. Discuss the client's feelings about surgery
• C. Tell the client what to expect in the operating room
• D. Raise the side rails of the bed
,Rationale: After preoperative medication, the client becomes drowsy and at risk for
injury from falls. Raising side rails prevents falls.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. The client is reluctant
to look at the stoma. Which response is most therapeutic?
• A. "You need to look at it to learn how to care for it."
• B. "I understand this is difficult. You can look when you're ready."
• C. "I will have the healthcare provider talk to you."
• D. "Your family can help you with the colostomy."
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and giving them control over when
they are ready is a therapeutic communication technique.
10. A nurse is assessing a client's peripheral pulses. Which pulse should the
nurse document as "2+"?
• A. Absent pulse
• B. Weak, barely palpable pulse
• C. Normal, easily palpable pulse
• D. Bounding, strong pulse
Rationale: Pulse grading: 0 = absent, 1+ = weak/thready, 2+ = normal, 3+ =
full/bounding. A 2+ pulse is normal and easily palpable.
11. A client on a low-sodium diet should avoid which food?
• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Canned soup
• C. Baked chicken
• D. Rice
Rationale: Canned and processed foods are typically very high in sodium, making
them inappropriate for a low-sodium diet.
12. When assisting a client with ambulation, on which side should the nurse
stand?
• A. In front of the client
• B. Behind the client
• C. On the client's weaker side
• D. On the client's stronger side
Rationale: Standing on the client's weaker side allows the nurse to provide support,
help with balance, and prevent falls.
, 13. A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would contaminate the
field?
• A. Placing sterile items in the center of the field
• B. Pouring sterile solution from a height of 6 inches
• C. Keeping the 1-inch border free of items
• D. Reaching over the sterile field
Rationale: The 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered contaminated. Reaching
over the field would also contaminate it.
14. The nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. When should the
sterile gloves be put on?
• A. Before opening the sterile package
• B. After opening the sterile package and before touching sterile items
• C. After the procedure is complete
• D. Before washing hands
Rationale: Sterile gloves should be donned after opening the sterile package to
maintain the sterility of the field and the gloves themselves.
15. Which food consistency is safest for a client with dysphagia (difficulty
swallowing)?
• A. Thin liquids
• B. Pureed foods
• C. Solid foods
• D. Carbonated beverages
Rationale: Pureed foods are the safest for clients with dysphagia because they are
easy to swallow and less likely to be aspirated into the lungs.
16. A nurse is providing perineal care to a female client. Which direction should
the nurse wipe?
• A. Back to front
• B. Front to back
• C. Circular motion
• D. Side to side
Rationale: Wiping from front to back prevents the spread of microorganisms from
the anal area to the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections.
17. A client reports difficulty sleeping. Which non-pharmacological intervention
should the nurse recommend first?
VERSIONS A & B: COMPREHENSIVE
200-QUESTION PRACTICE EXAM WITH
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED A+
(NEWEST)
1. The nurse helps a client to cough and deep breathe after surgery. It is
desirable for the client to assume which position?
• A. Side-lying
• B. Prone
• C. Supine with one pillow
• D. High Fowler's
Rationale: High Fowler's position allows for maximum lung expansion, which is
essential for effective deep breathing and coughing.
2. The nurse identifies which diet best meets the needs of a person with
multiple wounds?
• A. High-protein, low-fat, high-iron diet
• B. High-vitamin C, high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis and wound healing. Protein
provides the building blocks for tissue repair. Carbohydrates provide energy so
protein is used for healing rather than being broken down for energy.
3. The nurse identifies which lab finding reflects the signs and symptoms of
infection?
• A. Serum creatinine level of 2.4 mg/dL
• B. AST (SGOT) 15u/L
• C. White blood cell count of 16,000/mm³
Rationale: Normal WBC count is 5,000-10,000/mm³; an elevation (leukocytosis)
indicates infection.
4. The nurse understands which behavior is helpful to facilitate a client to have
a bowel elimination?
, • A. Engage in sedentary activity
• B. Increase dietary bulk
Rationale: Foods containing cellulose (whole wheat bread, fruits, grains) increase
stool bulk and promote peristalsis.
5. The nurse knows which statement is an important fact about warfarin?
• A. It has a prolonged action
Rationale: Warfarin has a duration of action of 2-5 days. It is given orally, not
parenterally.
6. To promote evening rest and sleep for clients who are immobilized and in
bed, it is most important for the nurse to provide which care?
• A. Privacy
• B. Back rubs
• C. Daily baths
• D. Daytime activities
Rationale: Daytime activities reduce daytime napping, provide relief from tension,
and enable the client to relax and sleep at night.
7. A client with acute pain has a health care provider's order for morphine 8 mg
IV every 3-4 hrs prn for pain. The client asks the nurse for medication at
bedtime. Prior to administering the pain medication, the nurse should take
which action?
• A. Assume the pain is psychological
• B. Check to see if the client has a history of addiction
• C. Try several other pain relief measures
• D. Assess location, character, and intensity of pain
Rationale: The nurse must always assess the client's pain characteristics (location,
onset, duration, intensity) before implementing any pain relief measures.
8. Which action is essential for the nurse to take after administration of
preoperative medication to a client?
• A. Ensure the operative permit is signed
• B. Discuss the client's feelings about surgery
• C. Tell the client what to expect in the operating room
• D. Raise the side rails of the bed
,Rationale: After preoperative medication, the client becomes drowsy and at risk for
injury from falls. Raising side rails prevents falls.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. The client is reluctant
to look at the stoma. Which response is most therapeutic?
• A. "You need to look at it to learn how to care for it."
• B. "I understand this is difficult. You can look when you're ready."
• C. "I will have the healthcare provider talk to you."
• D. "Your family can help you with the colostomy."
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and giving them control over when
they are ready is a therapeutic communication technique.
10. A nurse is assessing a client's peripheral pulses. Which pulse should the
nurse document as "2+"?
• A. Absent pulse
• B. Weak, barely palpable pulse
• C. Normal, easily palpable pulse
• D. Bounding, strong pulse
Rationale: Pulse grading: 0 = absent, 1+ = weak/thready, 2+ = normal, 3+ =
full/bounding. A 2+ pulse is normal and easily palpable.
11. A client on a low-sodium diet should avoid which food?
• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Canned soup
• C. Baked chicken
• D. Rice
Rationale: Canned and processed foods are typically very high in sodium, making
them inappropriate for a low-sodium diet.
12. When assisting a client with ambulation, on which side should the nurse
stand?
• A. In front of the client
• B. Behind the client
• C. On the client's weaker side
• D. On the client's stronger side
Rationale: Standing on the client's weaker side allows the nurse to provide support,
help with balance, and prevent falls.
, 13. A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action would contaminate the
field?
• A. Placing sterile items in the center of the field
• B. Pouring sterile solution from a height of 6 inches
• C. Keeping the 1-inch border free of items
• D. Reaching over the sterile field
Rationale: The 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered contaminated. Reaching
over the field would also contaminate it.
14. The nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. When should the
sterile gloves be put on?
• A. Before opening the sterile package
• B. After opening the sterile package and before touching sterile items
• C. After the procedure is complete
• D. Before washing hands
Rationale: Sterile gloves should be donned after opening the sterile package to
maintain the sterility of the field and the gloves themselves.
15. Which food consistency is safest for a client with dysphagia (difficulty
swallowing)?
• A. Thin liquids
• B. Pureed foods
• C. Solid foods
• D. Carbonated beverages
Rationale: Pureed foods are the safest for clients with dysphagia because they are
easy to swallow and less likely to be aspirated into the lungs.
16. A nurse is providing perineal care to a female client. Which direction should
the nurse wipe?
• A. Back to front
• B. Front to back
• C. Circular motion
• D. Side to side
Rationale: Wiping from front to back prevents the spread of microorganisms from
the anal area to the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections.
17. A client reports difficulty sleeping. Which non-pharmacological intervention
should the nurse recommend first?
