FINAL EXAM
(Mental Health Nursing)
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
(NCLEX (NGN) style Questions)
Herzing University
What you Will Get:
• 60 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept reinforcement.
,Question 1. When the nurse addresses questions to an adult female client who is
depressed, the client’s response is delayed. Which intervention should the nurse
include in the client’s plan of care?
A. Ask the client to respond more quickly to facilitate communication
B. Spend time sitting in silence with the client
C. Encourage the client to watch television to reduce social isolation
D. Schedule all care activities in rapid succession to stimulate engagement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Clients experiencing depression often require additional time to process information and
formulate responses. Sitting in silence conveys acceptance, reduces pressure, and
demonstrates the nurse’s willingness to be present without demanding immediate
interaction. This non-verbal therapeutic communication technique supports the client’s
current cognitive and emotional state.
Incorrect options:
Option A: Pressuring the client to respond more quickly increases anxiety and
reinforces feelings of inadequacy.
Option C: Using television as a distraction avoids therapeutic engagement and does
not address the underlying depression.
Option D: Rapidly scheduling activities overwhelms a depressed client who has
psychomotor retardation and low energy.
Question 2. An occupational health nurse is working with an employee who was
just notified that their child was involved in a motor vehicle collision and has
been taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I cannot believe that. What
should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
A. “Tell me more about how you are feeling right now.”
B. “Call for transportation to the hospital.”
C. “Have you considered speaking with a counselor about this?”
D. “Why don’t you sit down and finish your shift first?”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
In a crisis, the nurse’s priority is to facilitate the employee’s immediate access to their
child. Arranging transportation addresses the urgent need to be at the hospital and
,supports the employee’s role as a parent. Crisis intervention focuses on immediate,
concrete assistance.
Incorrect options:
Option A: While therapeutic communication is important, exploring feelings is
secondary to meeting the immediate crisis need.
Option C: Referral to counseling is appropriate later, but it does not address the
immediate crisis.
Option D: Suggesting the employee finish the shift dismisses the severity of the crisis
and is non-therapeutic.
Case Study 1 (Questions 3–8)
H&P: A 20-year-old female client is brought to the emergency department by a friend
reporting muscle aches, nausea, and diarrhea that began early yesterday morning. Her
last menstrual cycle was four weeks ago. She reports social drinking 2–3 times per
week with occasional heroin use. She denies tobacco use.
2030 Vital Signs: T 98.6°F, HR 125, RR 24, BP 150/93, O₂ sat 95%, Pain 8/10
Neurological: Lacrimation and bilateral eye irritation
Gastrointestinal: Low body mass index with signs of malnutrition
Integumentary: Bilateral needle tracks observed on forearms
Psychological: Anxious affect
Question 3. The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for the client
described in Case Study 1. Which findings require immediate follow-up? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Temperature 98.6°F
B. Heart rate 125 beats/min
C. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D. Blood pressure 150/93 mmHg
E. Oxygen saturation 95% on room air
F. Pain rated 8/10
G. Lacrimation and bilateral eye irritation
H. Low body mass index with signs of malnutrition
I. Bilateral needle tracks on forearms
J. Anxious affect
Correct Answers: B, C, D, F, G, H, I, J
, Rationale:
The client is experiencing opioid withdrawal, which produces autonomic hyperactivity
(tachycardia, tachypnea, hypertension), significant discomfort (pain 8/10), and classic
withdrawal signs (lacrimation, anxiety). Malnutrition and needle tracks indicate chronic
substance use and require nutritional support and infection screening. A temperature of
98.6°F is within normal limits and does not require follow-up. An O₂ sat of 95% is slightly
reduced but is not the priority in this acute withdrawal presentation compared to
autonomic instability and pain.
Question 4. For each finding below, indicate whether it is a characteristic primarily of
opioid withdrawal, influenza, or pregnancy. Each column must have at least one
response.
Table
Finding Opioid Withdrawal Influenza Pregnancy
Rhinorrhea ✓
Fatigue ✓ ✓
Diarrhea ✓
Fever ✓
Lacrimation ✓
Vomiting ✓ ✓
Nausea ✓ ✓
Rationale:
Rhinorrhea, diarrhea, and lacrimation are classic autonomic symptoms of opioid
withdrawal caused by norepinephrine rebound when opioids are discontinued. Fever is
characteristic of influenza. Fatigue occurs in both influenza and early pregnancy.