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Rasmussen NUR 2790 Exam 1 | Professional Nursing III (2026/2022027) Q&A | A+ Guarantee

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Rasmussen NUR 2790 Exam 1 Professional Nursing III Q&A provides comprehensive exam-focused questions, verified answers, and detailed rationales covering professional nursing practice, clinical judgment, patient safety, leadership, communication, prioritization, delegation, and evidence-based care. Ideal for focused review, strengthening key concepts, and effective Exam 1 preparation.Rasmussen NUR 2790 Exam 1, NUR 2790 Exam 1, Rasmussen NUR 2790, NUR 2790 Questions and Answers, NUR 2790 Exam Questions, NUR 2790 Exam Answers, Professional Nursing III Exam, Professional Nursing 3 Exam, NUR 2790 Study Guide, NUR 2790 Practice Exam, NUR 2790 Exam Prep, Professional Nursing Q&A, Nursing Leadership Exam, Clinical Judgment Nursing, Nursing Prioritization Questions, Rasmussen Nursing Exam, NUR 2790 Review, Professional Nursing Study Guide#NUR2790 #NUR2790Exam1 #Rasmussen #ProfessionalNursing #ProfessionalNursingIII #NursingExam #NursingQuestions #ExamAnswers #ClinicalJudgment #ExamPrep #StudyGuide #NursingStudents

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,NUR 2790 Exam 1 | Professional Nursing III (2026) Actual
Q&A PDF | Rasmussen College


1. Which of the following best describes the nurse's primary role in the informed
consent process for a surgical procedure?

A) Explaining the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure to the patient

B) Providing the patient with a list of alternative treatment options

C) Deciding if the patient is mentally capable of providing consent

D) Witnessing the patient's signature and ensuring voluntary comprehension



Correct Answer: D) Witnessing the patient's signature and ensuring voluntary
comprehension



Rationale: The nurse's primary role in informed consent is to serve as a witness to
the patient's signature. It is the healthcare provider's legal and professional
responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse
confirms the patient appears competent, is signing voluntarily, and has had the
opportunity to speak with the provider.



2. A nurse is caring for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Using the ABC
prioritization framework, which patient should the nurse assess first?

A) A patient with a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

B) A patient requesting oral pain medication for chronic back pain

C) A patient who needs a dressing change for a surgical wound

D) A patient reporting sharp chest pain and shortness of breath



Correct Answer: D) A patient reporting sharp chest pain and shortness of breath

,Rationale: The ABC (Airway-Breathing-Circulation) framework dictates that life-
threatening issues take priority. Chest pain and shortness of breath indicate potential
respiratory or cardiac distress, which must be addressed before stable, routine care
needs. Immediate assessment is critical to prevent life-threatening complications.



3. A patient arrives at the emergency department with full-thickness burns covering
the entire right arm and the anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the
estimated Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned?

A) 18%

B) 36%

C) 27%

D) 45%



Correct Answer: C) 27%



Rationale: The Rule of Nines assigns 9% to the entire right arm and 18% to the
anterior trunk (chest and abdomen). Adding these together results in a total of 27%
TBSA. Accurate calculation is essential as it determines the volume of fluid
resuscitation required for the patient's survival.



4. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is most
commonly observed?

A) Hypernatremia

B) Hypokalemia

C) Hypocalcemia

D) Hyperkalemia



Correct Answer: D) Hyperkalemia

, Rationale: In the emergent phase of a burn injury, massive cell destruction releases
intracellular potassium into the extracellular space, leading to hyperkalemia. This life-
threatening electrolyte imbalance requires close cardiac monitoring and appropriate
interventions.



5. Which clinical finding is considered an early sign of compensatory shock?

A) Hypotension

B) Anuria

C) Tachycardia

D) Metabolic Acidosis



Correct Answer: C) Tachycardia



Rationale: Tachycardia occurs early as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output
in response to decreased stroke volume. Hypotension is often a late sign indicating
that compensatory mechanisms are failing. Monitoring heart rate is a critical nursing
intervention for early detection of hemodynamic instability.



6. A nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU with increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Which position is most appropriate for this patient?

A) Supine with the head of the bed flat

B) Trendelenburg position

C) Side-lying with knees flexed

D) Semi-Fowler's with head midline



Correct Answer: D) Semi-Fowler's with head midline



Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees promotes venous
drainage from the brain and helps lower ICP. Keeping the head midline prevents

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