Page 1 of 35
NSG 533 EXAM 3 – 2026 WILKES ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY COMPLETE (110) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NSG
Prepare for the NSG 533 Exam 3 – Wilkes Advanced Pharmacology with this
comprehensive practice resource designed to strengthen your advanced
pharmacology knowledge and exam readiness. It features exam-style questions
covering medication mechanisms, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, drug
classifications, therapeutic applications, adverse effects, interactions, and safe
prescribing principles. Use it to reinforce essential concepts, assess your
understanding, and build confidence before test day. An excellent study aid for Wilkes
University nursing students preparing for the NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Exam
3.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
CARDIOVASCULAR PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–30)
Question 1: The geometric formula for the area of a triangle is:
A. (1/2)bh
B. πr²
C. 2πr
D. l × w
Correct answer: A. (1/2)bh
Rationale: The area of a triangle is calculated using (1/2) × base × height.
Question 2: A patient with heart failure has been on hydrochlorothiazide
(HCTZ) but continues to have significant congestion. The provider switches to
a loop diuretic. What is the primary rationale for this change?
A. Loop diuretics are more cost-effective
B. Loop diuretics maintain efficacy when renal function declines, whereas
thiazides lose effectiveness when CrCl < 30 mL/min
, Page 2 of 35
C. Loop diuretics have fewer side effects
D. Loop diuretics do not require potassium monitoring
Correct answer: B. Loop diuretics maintain efficacy when renal function
declines, whereas thiazides lose effectiveness when CrCl < 30 mL/min
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics become ineffective when creatinine clearance
drops below 30 mL/min, whereas loop diuretics maintain their effectiveness
in reduced renal function. This is a key prescribing consideration in heart
failure management .
Question 3: A patient starting a loop diuretic for heart failure should be
counseled about which important monitoring parameter?
A. Serum sodium levels only
B. Potassium levels—supplementation is often needed
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Serum calcium levels
Correct answer: B. Potassium levels—supplementation is often needed
Rationale: Loop diuretics are potassium-wasting diuretics. When initiating
loop diuretic therapy, potassium levels should be monitored, and potassium
supplementation is often necessary as part of the medication regimen .
Question 4: A patient with heart failure is being initiated on a beta-blocker.
Which counseling points should the NP provide?
A. The dose will start high and be titrated down
B. The dose will start low and be titrated slowly; monitor for hypotension,
bradycardia, and orthostasis
C. Symptom improvement will be immediate
D. Beta-blockers should be taken on an empty stomach
Correct answer: B. The dose will start low and be titrated slowly; monitor
for hypotension, bradycardia, and orthostasis
Rationale: Beta-blockers in heart failure should be started at a low dose and
titrated slowly. Patients should be educated about the possibility of worsening
symptoms initially, but improvement in long-term function and survival is
essential to ensure adherence. Symptoms to monitor include hypotension,
bradycardia, and orthostasis .
, Page 3 of 35
Question 5: A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, fatigue,
confusion, and visual disturbances including halos and color perception
problems. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medication non-adherence
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Atypical presentation of myocardial infarction
D. Adverse reaction to a newly started statin
Correct answer: B. Digoxin toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity presents with CNS symptoms (fatigue, weakness,
confusion, delirium, psychosis), GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia),
visual disturbances (halos, photophobia, color perception problems), and
cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation, nodal block,
bradycardia). Risk increases with electrolyte disturbances .
Question 6: A patient receiving nitrates for angina inquires about using a
phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor for erectile dysfunction. What is the
most important counseling point?
A. PDE-5 inhibitors can be used if taken 4 hours apart from nitrates
B. PDE-5 inhibitors should be avoided due to the risk of severe hypotension
C. PDE-5 inhibitors are safe with nitrates if the patient is hydrated
D. PDE-5 inhibitors have no interaction with nitrates
Correct answer: B. PDE-5 inhibitors should be avoided due to the risk of
severe hypotension
Rationale: Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil, tadalafil,
vardenafil) should be avoided when a patient is using nitroglycerin or other
nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. This is a life-threatening drug
interaction .
Question 7: A patient is diagnosed with Prinzmetal's (variant) angina. Which
therapy is most appropriate as initial treatment?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem/verapamil) or
long-acting nitrates
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Aspirin monotherapy
, Page 4 of 35
Correct answer: B. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
(diltiazem/verapamil) or long-acting nitrates
Rationale: Initial therapy for Prinzmetal's angina can be either a non-
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (diltiazem or verapamil) or a long-
acting nitrate. Beta-blockers should be avoided in variant angina as they may
worsen coronary vasospasm .
Question 8: The target blood pressure for all patients, regardless of
comorbidities, is:
A. 120/80 mmHg
B. 130/80 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 150/90 mmHg
Correct answer: B. 130/80 mmHg
Rationale: The target BP of 130/80 mmHg is recommended for all conditions
in hypertension treatment .
Question 9: According to hypertension classification, Stage 2 hypertension is
defined as:
A. 130-139/80-89
B. 140-159/90-99
C. >140/>90
D. >160/>100
Correct answer: C. >140/>90
Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure >140/>90
mmHg. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89. Normal is <120/<80, and elevated is 120-
129/<80 .
Question 10: A patient with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction is
prescribed a beta-blocker. Which statement regarding beta-blocker initiation
is accurate?
A. Worsening heart failure symptoms are a sign that the medication should be
discontinued
B. Worsening heart failure symptoms may occur initially but long-term
function and survival improve
NSG 533 EXAM 3 – 2026 WILKES ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY COMPLETE (110) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NSG
Prepare for the NSG 533 Exam 3 – Wilkes Advanced Pharmacology with this
comprehensive practice resource designed to strengthen your advanced
pharmacology knowledge and exam readiness. It features exam-style questions
covering medication mechanisms, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, drug
classifications, therapeutic applications, adverse effects, interactions, and safe
prescribing principles. Use it to reinforce essential concepts, assess your
understanding, and build confidence before test day. An excellent study aid for Wilkes
University nursing students preparing for the NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Exam
3.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
CARDIOVASCULAR PHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–30)
Question 1: The geometric formula for the area of a triangle is:
A. (1/2)bh
B. πr²
C. 2πr
D. l × w
Correct answer: A. (1/2)bh
Rationale: The area of a triangle is calculated using (1/2) × base × height.
Question 2: A patient with heart failure has been on hydrochlorothiazide
(HCTZ) but continues to have significant congestion. The provider switches to
a loop diuretic. What is the primary rationale for this change?
A. Loop diuretics are more cost-effective
B. Loop diuretics maintain efficacy when renal function declines, whereas
thiazides lose effectiveness when CrCl < 30 mL/min
, Page 2 of 35
C. Loop diuretics have fewer side effects
D. Loop diuretics do not require potassium monitoring
Correct answer: B. Loop diuretics maintain efficacy when renal function
declines, whereas thiazides lose effectiveness when CrCl < 30 mL/min
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics become ineffective when creatinine clearance
drops below 30 mL/min, whereas loop diuretics maintain their effectiveness
in reduced renal function. This is a key prescribing consideration in heart
failure management .
Question 3: A patient starting a loop diuretic for heart failure should be
counseled about which important monitoring parameter?
A. Serum sodium levels only
B. Potassium levels—supplementation is often needed
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Serum calcium levels
Correct answer: B. Potassium levels—supplementation is often needed
Rationale: Loop diuretics are potassium-wasting diuretics. When initiating
loop diuretic therapy, potassium levels should be monitored, and potassium
supplementation is often necessary as part of the medication regimen .
Question 4: A patient with heart failure is being initiated on a beta-blocker.
Which counseling points should the NP provide?
A. The dose will start high and be titrated down
B. The dose will start low and be titrated slowly; monitor for hypotension,
bradycardia, and orthostasis
C. Symptom improvement will be immediate
D. Beta-blockers should be taken on an empty stomach
Correct answer: B. The dose will start low and be titrated slowly; monitor
for hypotension, bradycardia, and orthostasis
Rationale: Beta-blockers in heart failure should be started at a low dose and
titrated slowly. Patients should be educated about the possibility of worsening
symptoms initially, but improvement in long-term function and survival is
essential to ensure adherence. Symptoms to monitor include hypotension,
bradycardia, and orthostasis .
, Page 3 of 35
Question 5: A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, fatigue,
confusion, and visual disturbances including halos and color perception
problems. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medication non-adherence
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Atypical presentation of myocardial infarction
D. Adverse reaction to a newly started statin
Correct answer: B. Digoxin toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity presents with CNS symptoms (fatigue, weakness,
confusion, delirium, psychosis), GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia),
visual disturbances (halos, photophobia, color perception problems), and
cardiac arrhythmias (ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation, nodal block,
bradycardia). Risk increases with electrolyte disturbances .
Question 6: A patient receiving nitrates for angina inquires about using a
phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor for erectile dysfunction. What is the
most important counseling point?
A. PDE-5 inhibitors can be used if taken 4 hours apart from nitrates
B. PDE-5 inhibitors should be avoided due to the risk of severe hypotension
C. PDE-5 inhibitors are safe with nitrates if the patient is hydrated
D. PDE-5 inhibitors have no interaction with nitrates
Correct answer: B. PDE-5 inhibitors should be avoided due to the risk of
severe hypotension
Rationale: Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil, tadalafil,
vardenafil) should be avoided when a patient is using nitroglycerin or other
nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. This is a life-threatening drug
interaction .
Question 7: A patient is diagnosed with Prinzmetal's (variant) angina. Which
therapy is most appropriate as initial treatment?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem/verapamil) or
long-acting nitrates
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Aspirin monotherapy
, Page 4 of 35
Correct answer: B. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
(diltiazem/verapamil) or long-acting nitrates
Rationale: Initial therapy for Prinzmetal's angina can be either a non-
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (diltiazem or verapamil) or a long-
acting nitrate. Beta-blockers should be avoided in variant angina as they may
worsen coronary vasospasm .
Question 8: The target blood pressure for all patients, regardless of
comorbidities, is:
A. 120/80 mmHg
B. 130/80 mmHg
C. 140/90 mmHg
D. 150/90 mmHg
Correct answer: B. 130/80 mmHg
Rationale: The target BP of 130/80 mmHg is recommended for all conditions
in hypertension treatment .
Question 9: According to hypertension classification, Stage 2 hypertension is
defined as:
A. 130-139/80-89
B. 140-159/90-99
C. >140/>90
D. >160/>100
Correct answer: C. >140/>90
Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure >140/>90
mmHg. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89. Normal is <120/<80, and elevated is 120-
129/<80 .
Question 10: A patient with heart failure and reduced ejection fraction is
prescribed a beta-blocker. Which statement regarding beta-blocker initiation
is accurate?
A. Worsening heart failure symptoms are a sign that the medication should be
discontinued
B. Worsening heart failure symptoms may occur initially but long-term
function and survival improve
