NSG 3280 EXAM 3 2026-2027 Q&A EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE
STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT
PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and
pleuritic chest pain two days after abdominal surgery. Which finding should the nurse
recognize as most concerning for a pulmonary embolism?
A. Productive cough with thick sputum
B. Sudden dyspnea accompanied by tachycardia
C. Gradual onset of bilateral ankle edema
D. Expiratory wheezing relieved by coughing
Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia in a postoperative client are classic concerning findings for
pulmonary embolism and require immediate assessment and intervention.
2. A client with heart failure is being discharged. Which statement indicates that the client
understands an important method of monitoring fluid status at home?
A. “I will weigh myself every morning using the same scale.”
B. “I will weigh myself whenever my shoes feel tight.”
C. “I only need to monitor my weight when I feel short of breath.”
D. “I will compare my weight once a month.”
Daily weights under consistent conditions provide an early indication of fluid retention and
worsening heart failure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous potassium replacement. Which action
is most appropriate?
A. Administer potassium by rapid IV push if the level is critically low.
B. Mix potassium with a concentrated dextrose solution only.
C. Administer potassium using an appropriate diluted IV solution and controlled infusion rate.
D. Stop cardiac monitoring during potassium administration.
IV potassium must be appropriately diluted and administered at a controlled rate because
rapid administration can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease becomes increasingly dyspneic.
Which position should the nurse use first to facilitate ventilation?
,A. Supine with the legs elevated
B. Trendelenburg position
C. Flat prone position
D. High-Fowler's position with the upper body supported
An upright position improves lung expansion and can decrease the work of breathing in a
client experiencing respiratory distress.
5. A client with pneumonia has an oxygen saturation of 86% and increasing respiratory
distress. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage oral fluid intake
B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed or emergency protocol
C. Obtain a detailed dietary history
D. Place the client in a darkened room
Hypoxemia with respiratory distress requires prompt oxygen support while the nurse
continues assessment and addresses the underlying cause.
6. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most consistent
with pulmonary congestion?
A. Crackles and dyspnea
B. Ascites only
C. Dependent peripheral edema without respiratory symptoms
D. Enlarged liver without lung findings
Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary venous congestion, commonly producing dyspnea,
crackles, and other respiratory manifestations.
7. A client taking a loop diuretic reports muscle weakness and palpitations. Which
laboratory result should the nurse assess most closely?
A. Elevated calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Elevated sodium
D. Low chloride only
Loop diuretics can increase potassium excretion. Hypokalemia may produce muscle weakness
and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed an anticoagulant. What is the primary
therapeutic goal of anticoagulation?
A. Increase ventricular contractility
B. Lower the client's blood glucose
,C. Prevent thromboembolic complications
D. Eliminate all irregular heartbeats
Atrial fibrillation promotes blood stasis in the atria, increasing thromboembolic risk.
Anticoagulation reduces the risk of clot formation and embolic stroke.
9. A client with chest pressure, diaphoresis, nausea, and shortness of breath arrives in the
emergency department. What should the nurse prioritize?
A. Determining the client's preferred diet
B. Completing the discharge instructions
C. Obtaining an immediate focused cardiovascular assessment and activating the appropriate
emergency response
D. Encouraging the client to ambulate
These symptoms may indicate acute coronary syndrome. Rapid assessment and emergency
management are priorities because myocardial injury can progress rapidly.
10. A client taking nitroglycerin for angina reports severe dizziness after standing. Which
explanation is most appropriate?
A. Nitroglycerin commonly causes hypertension.
B. Nitroglycerin can cause vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension.
C. The medication increases circulating blood volume.
D. The medication causes bronchoconstriction.
Nitroglycerin produces vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure and cause dizziness,
particularly when changing positions.
11. A client reports crushing substernal chest pain that began 30 minutes ago and does not
improve with rest. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Stable angina only
C. Chronic venous insufficiency
D. Tension headache
New, severe, persistent chest pain that does not resolve with rest is concerning for acute
coronary syndrome and requires immediate evaluation.
12. A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization through
the femoral artery. Which assessment is most important immediately afterward?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Visual acuity
, C. Distal circulation and the catheter insertion site
D. Appetite
The nurse should assess the insertion site for bleeding and evaluate distal pulses, color,
temperature, and sensation for vascular complications.
13. A client develops a hematoma at a femoral catheterization site. What should the nurse
do first?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Apply appropriate pressure and notify the healthcare team according to protocol
C. Massage the hematoma
D. Place a heating pad directly over the site
A growing hematoma can indicate significant bleeding. Appropriate pressure and prompt
notification help prevent further blood loss and complications.
14. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports calf pain when walking that improves
with rest. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Venous stasis ulceration
C. Acute compartment syndrome
D. Neurogenic pain
Intermittent claudication occurs when arterial blood flow is insufficient during activity,
producing predictable pain that improves with rest.
15. Which assessment finding is more characteristic of chronic venous insufficiency than
peripheral arterial disease?
A. Cool, pale extremity
B. Diminished peripheral pulses
C. Dependent edema and brownish skin discoloration
D. Pain relieved by placing the leg in a dependent position
Venous insufficiency commonly causes dependent edema, stasis changes, and brownish
pigmentation from chronic venous hypertension.
16. A client with suspected deep vein thrombosis has unilateral calf swelling and warmth.
Which nursing action is appropriate?
A. Massage the affected calf
B. Encourage vigorous ambulation immediately
AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE
STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT
PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and
pleuritic chest pain two days after abdominal surgery. Which finding should the nurse
recognize as most concerning for a pulmonary embolism?
A. Productive cough with thick sputum
B. Sudden dyspnea accompanied by tachycardia
C. Gradual onset of bilateral ankle edema
D. Expiratory wheezing relieved by coughing
Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia in a postoperative client are classic concerning findings for
pulmonary embolism and require immediate assessment and intervention.
2. A client with heart failure is being discharged. Which statement indicates that the client
understands an important method of monitoring fluid status at home?
A. “I will weigh myself every morning using the same scale.”
B. “I will weigh myself whenever my shoes feel tight.”
C. “I only need to monitor my weight when I feel short of breath.”
D. “I will compare my weight once a month.”
Daily weights under consistent conditions provide an early indication of fluid retention and
worsening heart failure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous potassium replacement. Which action
is most appropriate?
A. Administer potassium by rapid IV push if the level is critically low.
B. Mix potassium with a concentrated dextrose solution only.
C. Administer potassium using an appropriate diluted IV solution and controlled infusion rate.
D. Stop cardiac monitoring during potassium administration.
IV potassium must be appropriately diluted and administered at a controlled rate because
rapid administration can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease becomes increasingly dyspneic.
Which position should the nurse use first to facilitate ventilation?
,A. Supine with the legs elevated
B. Trendelenburg position
C. Flat prone position
D. High-Fowler's position with the upper body supported
An upright position improves lung expansion and can decrease the work of breathing in a
client experiencing respiratory distress.
5. A client with pneumonia has an oxygen saturation of 86% and increasing respiratory
distress. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage oral fluid intake
B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed or emergency protocol
C. Obtain a detailed dietary history
D. Place the client in a darkened room
Hypoxemia with respiratory distress requires prompt oxygen support while the nurse
continues assessment and addresses the underlying cause.
6. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most consistent
with pulmonary congestion?
A. Crackles and dyspnea
B. Ascites only
C. Dependent peripheral edema without respiratory symptoms
D. Enlarged liver without lung findings
Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary venous congestion, commonly producing dyspnea,
crackles, and other respiratory manifestations.
7. A client taking a loop diuretic reports muscle weakness and palpitations. Which
laboratory result should the nurse assess most closely?
A. Elevated calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Elevated sodium
D. Low chloride only
Loop diuretics can increase potassium excretion. Hypokalemia may produce muscle weakness
and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed an anticoagulant. What is the primary
therapeutic goal of anticoagulation?
A. Increase ventricular contractility
B. Lower the client's blood glucose
,C. Prevent thromboembolic complications
D. Eliminate all irregular heartbeats
Atrial fibrillation promotes blood stasis in the atria, increasing thromboembolic risk.
Anticoagulation reduces the risk of clot formation and embolic stroke.
9. A client with chest pressure, diaphoresis, nausea, and shortness of breath arrives in the
emergency department. What should the nurse prioritize?
A. Determining the client's preferred diet
B. Completing the discharge instructions
C. Obtaining an immediate focused cardiovascular assessment and activating the appropriate
emergency response
D. Encouraging the client to ambulate
These symptoms may indicate acute coronary syndrome. Rapid assessment and emergency
management are priorities because myocardial injury can progress rapidly.
10. A client taking nitroglycerin for angina reports severe dizziness after standing. Which
explanation is most appropriate?
A. Nitroglycerin commonly causes hypertension.
B. Nitroglycerin can cause vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension.
C. The medication increases circulating blood volume.
D. The medication causes bronchoconstriction.
Nitroglycerin produces vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure and cause dizziness,
particularly when changing positions.
11. A client reports crushing substernal chest pain that began 30 minutes ago and does not
improve with rest. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Acute coronary syndrome
B. Stable angina only
C. Chronic venous insufficiency
D. Tension headache
New, severe, persistent chest pain that does not resolve with rest is concerning for acute
coronary syndrome and requires immediate evaluation.
12. A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization through
the femoral artery. Which assessment is most important immediately afterward?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Visual acuity
, C. Distal circulation and the catheter insertion site
D. Appetite
The nurse should assess the insertion site for bleeding and evaluate distal pulses, color,
temperature, and sensation for vascular complications.
13. A client develops a hematoma at a femoral catheterization site. What should the nurse
do first?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Apply appropriate pressure and notify the healthcare team according to protocol
C. Massage the hematoma
D. Place a heating pad directly over the site
A growing hematoma can indicate significant bleeding. Appropriate pressure and prompt
notification help prevent further blood loss and complications.
14. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports calf pain when walking that improves
with rest. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Venous stasis ulceration
C. Acute compartment syndrome
D. Neurogenic pain
Intermittent claudication occurs when arterial blood flow is insufficient during activity,
producing predictable pain that improves with rest.
15. Which assessment finding is more characteristic of chronic venous insufficiency than
peripheral arterial disease?
A. Cool, pale extremity
B. Diminished peripheral pulses
C. Dependent edema and brownish skin discoloration
D. Pain relieved by placing the leg in a dependent position
Venous insufficiency commonly causes dependent edema, stasis changes, and brownish
pigmentation from chronic venous hypertension.
16. A client with suspected deep vein thrombosis has unilateral calf swelling and warmth.
Which nursing action is appropriate?
A. Massage the affected calf
B. Encourage vigorous ambulation immediately
