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NURS 3209 Health Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rati

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This document contains practice questions and correct answers for the NURS 3209 health exam. It covers topics relevant to nursing health assessment, providing a study resource for students preparing for exams in this course.

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NURS 3209 HEALTH EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES Q&A INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
140 QUESTIONS



TABLE OF CONTENTS

# TOPIC

1 Demonstrate advanced proficiency in performing comprehensive and focused health assessments

2 Analyze and synthesize assessment data to formulate differential diagnoses and evidence-based care
plans

3 Apply current guidelines and best practices in clinical decision-making for complex health scenarios

4 Interpret diagnostic and laboratory findings to guide nursing interventions and patient education

5 NURS 3209 Health Exam Practice Questions And Correct Answers

6 Verified Answers

7 Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download Pdf

8 Foundations of Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning

9 Applied Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning

10 Advanced Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning

11 Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning Review




Page 1

,Q1 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
A patient presents with acute-onset severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and
photophobia. Vital signs are stable. Which assessment finding would most
strongly support the need for immediate neuroimaging before lumbar puncture?
A. Kernig sign positive

B. Brudzinski sign positive

C. Bilateral papilledema on fundoscopic exam CORRECT

D. Fever of 38.9°C (102°F)

RATIONALE: Papilledema indicates increased intracranial pressure, a contraindication to lumbar
puncture due to risk of herniation. Kernig and Brudzinski signs suggest meningeal irritation but do
not preclude LP. Fever is common in meningitis but does not alone necessitate imaging before
LP.




Q2 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
Which electrocardiographic finding is most indicative of hyperkalemia and
warrants immediate intervention?
A. Prolonged PR interval

B. Peaked T waves CORRECT

C. ST-segment depression

D. Short QT interval

RATIONALE: Peaked T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia, reflecting altered
repolarization. Prolonged PR interval can occur but is less specific. ST depression and short QT
are not typical of hyperkalemia.




Page 2

,Q3 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an arterial blood
gas showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L. How should the nurse
interpret this acid-base disturbance?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis with no metabolic compensation

B. Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation CORRECT

C. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

D. Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis

RATIONALE: Low pH and high PaCO2 indicate respiratory acidosis. The elevated HCO3- (30)
suggests chronic compensation by the kidneys, typical in longstanding COPD. Acute acidosis
would show normal HCO3-. Metabolic alkalosis would have high pH.




Q4 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
Which technique is most appropriate for assessing the liver span during
abdominal examination?
A. Deep palpation in the right upper quadrant during inspiration

B. Percussion from the right midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space down to the costal
margin CORRECT

C. Auscultation for bruits over the liver

D. Light palpation of the right upper quadrant during expiration

RATIONALE: Percussion of the right midclavicular line from the lung resonance to liver dullness
estimates the liver span (normal 6-12 cm). Deep palpation may feel the edge but not the span.
Auscultation for bruits is for vascular abnormalities.




Page 3

, Q5 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
A patient with a history of heart failure presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation.
Which medication should be questioned as a potential cause of the arrhythmia?
A. Metoprolol succinate

B. Digoxin CORRECT

C. Furosemide

D. Lisinopril

RATIONALE: Digoxin toxicity can precipitate atrial fibrillation and other arrhythmias, especially in
the setting of hypokalemia (common with furosemide). Metoprolol, furosemide, and lisinopril are
less commonly associated with new-onset AF.




Q6 DEMONSTRATE ADVANCED PROFICIENCY IN PERFORMING COMPREHENSIVE AND
FOCUSED HEALTH ASSESSMENTS
Which assessment finding is most consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion?
A. Fasciculations in the affected muscle group

B. Hyporeflexia with flaccid paralysis

C. Babinski sign present and hyperreflexia CORRECT

D. Muscle atrophy with decreased tone

RATIONALE: Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperreflexia, spasticity, and a positive Babinski
sign. Fasciculations, hyporeflexia, flaccid paralysis, and atrophy are characteristic of lower motor
neuron lesions.




Page 4

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