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Ati Rn Comprehensive Preditor 1 Exam Brand New Version Q&A Exam -Practice Questions And Answers Plus Detailed Rationales | Complete Studyguide| Guaranteed Pass | Download Instant Pdf

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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDITOR 1 EXAM BRAND NEW VERSION Q&A EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF

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ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDITOR 1 EXAM BRAND NEW
VERSION 2027-2028 Q&A EXAM -PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS PLUS DETAILED RATIONALES | COMPLETE
STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS | DOWNLOAD INSTANT
PDF 2027-2028
1. A nurse is caring for a client 2 hours after abdominal surgery who reports sudden
shortness of breath. The oxygen saturation is 84% on room air, and the client is restless.
Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Encourage incentive spirometry
B. Apply oxygen and assess respiratory status
C. Administer the prescribed opioid
D. Assist the client to ambulate

Rationale: The client's acute hypoxemia and restlessness indicate impaired oxygenation.
Oxygen should be applied promptly while the nurse performs an immediate respiratory
assessment and initiates further emergency interventions as indicated.

2. A nurse is evaluating a client with heart failure who has gained 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 4 days.
Which additional finding most strongly indicates fluid volume overload?

A. Increased appetite
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Bilateral crackles and orthopnea
D. Decreased jugular venous pressure

Rationale: Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea indicate pulmonary congestion caused by
excess fluid. Rapid weight gain in heart failure is also a key indicator of fluid retention.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen therapy. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse to intervene immediately?

A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C. Productive cough with clear sputum
D. New confusion and increasing somnolence

Rationale: New confusion and somnolence can indicate worsening carbon dioxide retention or
respiratory failure. The nurse should promptly assess ventilation and respiratory status rather
than assuming the change is expected.

,4. A client with pneumonia has a respiratory rate of 32/min, temperature of 39.1°C
(102.4°F), and blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg. Which action is the priority?

A. Initiate the prescribed sepsis interventions
B. Encourage oral fluids only
C. Place the client on bed rest and reassess in 4 hours
D. Administer an oral antitussive

Rationale: Hypotension, tachypnea, and fever indicate possible sepsis with impaired
perfusion. Prompt sepsis management, including cultures, IV fluids, and prescribed
antimicrobial therapy, is essential.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary embolism who suddenly develops
severe dyspnea and chest pain. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

A. Encourage oral hydration
B. Assist with ambulation
C. Administer supplemental oxygen
D. Obtain a routine dietary history

Rationale: Acute pulmonary embolism can cause severe hypoxemia. Supporting oxygenation
is an immediate priority while diagnostic and definitive treatment measures are initiated.

6. A client with hypovolemic shock has a blood pressure of 78/44 mm Hg, heart rate of
132/min, and cool clammy skin. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

A. Fluid restriction
B. Rapid isotonic IV fluid administration
C. Administration of a diuretic
D. Oral potassium replacement

Rationale: Hypovolemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume. Rapid
administration of prescribed isotonic IV fluids helps restore intravascular volume and tissue
perfusion.

7. A client with gastrointestinal bleeding has bright-red blood in the stool and becomes
dizzy when standing. Which assessment is most important?

A. Nail length
B. Visual acuity
C. Skin turgor only
D. Blood pressure and heart rate

, Rationale: Orthostatic symptoms with gastrointestinal bleeding may indicate significant
volume loss. Blood pressure and heart rate help determine the severity of hemodynamic
compromise.

8. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, and shaky. The bedside
glucose level is 54 mg/dL. Which intervention should the nurse provide?

A. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
B. Administer the scheduled insulin
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Give a high-protein meal immediately

Rationale: An alert client with mild-to-moderate hypoglycemia should receive approximately
15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of blood glucose.

9. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving IV insulin. The serum potassium
decreases from 4.8 to 3.2 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse anticipate?

A. Discontinue all IV fluids
B. Administer additional insulin without reassessment
C. Notify the provider and anticipate potassium replacement
D. Encourage a potassium-free diet

Rationale: Insulin shifts potassium into cells and can cause dangerous hypokalemia during
DKA treatment. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L requires prompt evaluation and likely
replacement before continuing aggressive insulin therapy.

10. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis has deep, rapid respirations. The nurse recognizes
this pattern as which compensatory response?

A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
B. Kussmaul respirations
C. Apneustic respirations
D. Biot respirations

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid respirations that occur as the body
attempts to eliminate carbon dioxide and compensate for metabolic acidosis associated with
DKA.

11. A client with hyperthyroidism reports palpitations, heat intolerance, and unexplained
weight loss. Which additional finding would the nurse expect?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hypothermia

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