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Nursing 354 Midterm Exam Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant
Download Pdf
__________________________________________________________________
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected left-sided heart failure. Which
finding is most characteristic?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, commonly
producing crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
2. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient with acute
coronary syndrome?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Chest pressure radiating to the jaw
C. Heart rate of 82 beats/min
D. Blood pressure of 128/76 mmHg
Answer: Chest pressure radiating to the jaw
,Rationale: Chest pressure with radiation to the jaw is a classic manifestation of
myocardial ischemia and requires immediate evaluation.
3. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely in a patient
receiving furosemide?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelets
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss
and hypokalemia.
4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen.
Which oxygen saturation target is commonly appropriate for a patient at
risk for chronic carbon dioxide retention?
A. 70%–75%
B. 80%–85%
C. 88%–92%
D. 98%–100%
Answer: 88%–92%
Rationale: A target of approximately 88%–92% is commonly used for patients
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic
respiratory failure.
5. Which finding is most consistent with hypoxemia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Bradycardia with hypertension
Answer: Cyanosis
,Rationale: Cyanosis can occur when oxygenation is significantly impaired,
although pulse oximetry and clinical assessment should be used together.
6. Which position is most beneficial for a patient experiencing acute dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler position
D. Prone
Answer: High-Fowler position
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed improves lung expansion and reduces
the work of breathing.
7. A patient with asthma develops severe wheezing followed by markedly
diminished breath sounds. What should the nurse recognize?
A. Improvement in airway obstruction
B. Possible severe airflow obstruction
C. Normal progression of asthma
D. Resolution of bronchospasm
Answer: Possible severe airflow obstruction
Rationale: A "silent chest" or markedly diminished breath sounds in severe
asthma can indicate critically reduced airflow and impending respiratory failure.
8. Which finding is most characteristic of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Bilateral equal breath sounds
B. Tracheal deviation with respiratory distress
C. Bradycardia without respiratory symptoms
D. Increased bowel sounds
Answer: Tracheal deviation with respiratory distress
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax can cause severe respiratory distress,
unilateral absent breath sounds, hypotension, and tracheal deviation away from
the affected side.
, 9. Which intervention is the priority for a patient experiencing an acute
pulmonary embolism?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Apply oxygen as prescribed
C. Restrict all fluids
D. Place the patient flat
Answer: Apply oxygen as prescribed
Rationale: Oxygenation and stabilization of respiratory status are immediate
priorities in acute pulmonary embolism.
10.Which finding is commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis?
A. Bilateral cool feet
B. Unilateral leg swelling and pain
C. Bradycardia
D. Productive cough
Answer: Unilateral leg swelling and pain
Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis commonly presents with unilateral extremity
swelling, warmth, tenderness, or pain.
11.Which assessment finding is most suggestive of hypovolemic shock?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Hypotension and tachycardia
C. Bradycardia and hypertension
D. Increased urine output
Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia
Rationale: Loss of circulating volume causes compensatory tachycardia followed
by hypotension as shock progresses.
12.Which urine output should cause concern in an adult patient?
Nursing 354 Midterm Exam Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant
Download Pdf
__________________________________________________________________
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected left-sided heart failure. Which
finding is most characteristic?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, commonly
producing crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
2. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient with acute
coronary syndrome?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Chest pressure radiating to the jaw
C. Heart rate of 82 beats/min
D. Blood pressure of 128/76 mmHg
Answer: Chest pressure radiating to the jaw
,Rationale: Chest pressure with radiation to the jaw is a classic manifestation of
myocardial ischemia and requires immediate evaluation.
3. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely in a patient
receiving furosemide?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelets
Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss
and hypokalemia.
4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen.
Which oxygen saturation target is commonly appropriate for a patient at
risk for chronic carbon dioxide retention?
A. 70%–75%
B. 80%–85%
C. 88%–92%
D. 98%–100%
Answer: 88%–92%
Rationale: A target of approximately 88%–92% is commonly used for patients
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic
respiratory failure.
5. Which finding is most consistent with hypoxemia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Increased appetite
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Bradycardia with hypertension
Answer: Cyanosis
,Rationale: Cyanosis can occur when oxygenation is significantly impaired,
although pulse oximetry and clinical assessment should be used together.
6. Which position is most beneficial for a patient experiencing acute dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler position
D. Prone
Answer: High-Fowler position
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed improves lung expansion and reduces
the work of breathing.
7. A patient with asthma develops severe wheezing followed by markedly
diminished breath sounds. What should the nurse recognize?
A. Improvement in airway obstruction
B. Possible severe airflow obstruction
C. Normal progression of asthma
D. Resolution of bronchospasm
Answer: Possible severe airflow obstruction
Rationale: A "silent chest" or markedly diminished breath sounds in severe
asthma can indicate critically reduced airflow and impending respiratory failure.
8. Which finding is most characteristic of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Bilateral equal breath sounds
B. Tracheal deviation with respiratory distress
C. Bradycardia without respiratory symptoms
D. Increased bowel sounds
Answer: Tracheal deviation with respiratory distress
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax can cause severe respiratory distress,
unilateral absent breath sounds, hypotension, and tracheal deviation away from
the affected side.
, 9. Which intervention is the priority for a patient experiencing an acute
pulmonary embolism?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Apply oxygen as prescribed
C. Restrict all fluids
D. Place the patient flat
Answer: Apply oxygen as prescribed
Rationale: Oxygenation and stabilization of respiratory status are immediate
priorities in acute pulmonary embolism.
10.Which finding is commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis?
A. Bilateral cool feet
B. Unilateral leg swelling and pain
C. Bradycardia
D. Productive cough
Answer: Unilateral leg swelling and pain
Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis commonly presents with unilateral extremity
swelling, warmth, tenderness, or pain.
11.Which assessment finding is most suggestive of hypovolemic shock?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Hypotension and tachycardia
C. Bradycardia and hypertension
D. Increased urine output
Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia
Rationale: Loss of circulating volume causes compensatory tachycardia followed
by hypotension as shock progresses.
12.Which urine output should cause concern in an adult patient?
