Galen NUR 283 (NUR283) Comp 1 Exam | Complete Questions & Answers | A+ Review Guide | Latest 2026–2027.

Transition To Registered Nursing Practice (NUR 283): NUR 283 Comp 1 Exam – Complete Questions and Answers | Galen College of Nursing | A+ Study Guide | Updated 2026–2027 1. A medical-surgical RN is delegating care. Which task must the RN perform rather than delegate? A. Completing the initial nursing assessment and care plan B. Making an occupied bed C. Recording routine intake and output D. Reinforcing previously taught coughing exercises 2. Which assignment is appropriate for the RN to delegate to a UAP? A. Teach a client how to use a walker B. Ambulate a postoperative client for the first time C. Perform the first set of vital signs after surgery D. Assist a stable client with a gait belt two hours after the RN completed the first ambulation 3. Which postoperative task should remain with the RN? A. Rechecking routine vital signs later in the shift B. Obtaining and interpreting the initial vital signs after the procedure C. Providing catheter care D. Documenting oral intake 4. Which teaching-related task may the RN assign to an LVN? A. Reinforce coughing and deep-breathing instructions already provided by the RN B. Provide the first explanation of a new diagnosis C. Evaluate the client's learning needs D. Create the initial discharge teaching plan 5. Which clinical task is appropriate for delegation to an LVN when permitted by policy and state practice guidelines? A. Perform tracheostomy care for a stable client B. Formulate nursing diagnoses C. Develop the plan of care D. Complete the initial assessment 6. Which client-feeding task is appropriate for a UAP? A. Assess a client's gag reflex before feeding B. Administer an enteral tube feeding C. Feed a stable client who has no swallowing precautions D. Feed a client who requires aspiration precautions 7. Which task may the RN delegate to an LVN caring for a client with an infected leg ulcer? A. Develop the wound-care plan B. Plan ways to improve protein intake C. Obtain a wound culture during the dressing change D. Provide the initial home-care teaching 8. A client is scheduled for an invasive procedure. Who is responsible for explaining the procedure, benefits, risks, and alternatives? A. The nurse witnessing the signature B. The provider performing or prescribing the procedure C. The UAP preparing the room D. The unit clerk processing the form 9. What is the nurse's role after the provider has completed the informed-consent discussion? A. Witness the client's signature on the consent form B. Guarantee the expected outcome C. Sign the form for the client D. Choose the safest treatment alternative 10. A client asks a new question while the nurse is presenting the consent form for signature. What should the nurse do? A. Delay the signature and contact the provider to answer the question B. Have the client sign and document the question later C. Answer the question and obtain the signature D. Ask a family member to explain the procedure 11. Which statement about informed consent is accurate? A. It may be obtained after the procedure B. It must be voluntary and may be revoked by the client at any time C. It allows the nurse to sign for an unconscious client D. It becomes irrevocable once signed 12. Which information is required as part of informed consent? A. A promise that treatment will succeed B. Only the name of the planned procedure C. Reasonable alternatives, including the option to refuse all interventions D. The nurse's preferred treatment choice 13. Which instruction should the nurse give a client about cleaning a hearing aid? A. Use a soft brush with mild soap and water while avoiding excessive wetting B. Clean it with a stiff wire brush C. Rinse it under running hot water D. Soak the entire device overnight 14. How should a client set the volume on a hearing aid? A. At a level that produces mild feedback B. At a fixed setting that is never adjusted C. At maximum volume for all conversations D. At the lowest setting that permits hearing without feedback 15. A nurse is prioritizing clients after shift report. Which client should be assessed first? A. A stable client requesting a hearing-aid battery B. A client requesting help to select lunch C. A client 30 minutes after ERCP who reports difficulty swallowing D. A client waiting for routine catheter care 16. Which situation commonly requires an NG tube according to the supplied review? A. Stable hypertension B. A healed skin abrasion C. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding or obstruction D. Uncomplicated hearing loss 17. How often should the nurse assess NG-tube placement, patency, and output? A. Once every 24 hours B. Only after the tube stops draining C. Only before discharge D. Every 4 hours 18. How should the nurse assess bowel sounds in a client receiving NG suction? A. Irrigate the tube during auscultation B. Increase suction during auscultation C. Clamp the tube for eight hours D. Disconnect the suction before auscultating 19. Which plan is appropriate for a client with an NG tube for decompression? A. Limit mouth care to once daily B. Maintain NPO status, provide frequent mouth and nares care, and use Semi-Fowler's position C. Encourage solid meals and place the client flat D. Permit the tube to rest unsecured against the nares 20. A confused client repeatedly reaches for an IV line. Which action should the nurse try before applying restraints? A. Move the client away from the nurses' station B. Reorient the client and use close observation or a sitter C. Sedate the client without further assessment D. Apply wrist restraints immediately 21. Which environmental intervention is an appropriate restraint alternative? A. Place the client near the nurses' station and provide calming activities B. Isolate the client in a distant room C. Remove all familiar objects D. Increase noise and stimulation 22. The nurse finds a peripheral IV site red, swollen, and tender. What is the next action? A. Cover the site and reassess tomorrow B. Stop the infusion and remove the IV C. Continue the infusion until the bag is empty D. Increase the infusion rate 23. Which finding is most consistent with peripheral IV phlebitis? A. A dry dressing and brisk blood return B. Warm fingers with normal capillary refill C. Erythema, inflammation, and tenderness at the insertion site D. Clear skin without discomfort 24. After an IV complication, which documentation is appropriate? A. Chart objective findings and nursing actions without mentioning the incident report B. Document that risk management received the incident report C. Omit the complication from the medical record D. Record opinions about who caused the event 25. Which method can help protect an older adult's fragile skin during IV insertion? A. Apply the tourniquet directly and as tightly as possible B. Place a soft cloth under the tourniquet or use a blood-pressure cuff above the site C. Use adhesive tape circumferentially around the limb D. Rub the skin vigorously before insertion 26. Which ABG pattern indicates respiratory acidosis? A. pH below 7.35 with PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg B. pH above 7.45 with bicarbonate above 26 mEq/L C. pH above 7.45 with PaCO2 below 35 mm Hg D. pH below 7.35 with bicarbonate below 22 mEq/L 27. Which ABG pattern indicates metabolic acidosis? A. pH below 7.35 with PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg B. pH above 7.45 with bicarbonate above 26 mEq/L C. pH above 7.45 with PaCO2 below 35 mm Hg D. pH below 7.35 with bicarbonate below 22 mEq/L 28. Which ABG pattern indicates respiratory alkalosis? A. pH above 7.45 with PaCO2 below 35 mm Hg B. pH below 7.35 with bicarbonate below 22 mEq/L C. pH above 7.45 with bicarbonate above 26 mEq/L D. pH below 7.35 with PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg 29. Which ABG pattern indicates metabolic alkalosis? A. pH below 7.35 with PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg B. pH below 7.35 with bicarbonate below 22 mEq/L C. pH above 7.45 with PaCO2 below 35 mm Hg D. pH above 7.45 with bicarbonate above 26 mEq/L 30. Which condition is identified in the review as a cause of metabolic alkalosis? A. Prolonged vomiting or NG suctioning B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Severe dehydration causing metabolic acidosis D. Renal failure with acid retention 31. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis is expected to develop which acid-base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis 32. Which condition is a possible cause of respiratory acidosis according to the review? A. COPD with carbon dioxide retention B. Excessive antacid use C. Prolonged vomiting D. Fear-related hyperventilation 33. Which situation can produce respiratory alkalosis? A. Opioid-related hypoventilation B. Prolonged NG suction C. Hyperventilation caused by fear D. Diabetic ketoacidosis 34. What pathophysiologic change characterizes type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. Increased production of red blood cells B. Overactivity of the thyroid gland C. Destruction of pancreatic beta cells D. Excess secretion of insulin 35. A client with diabetes plans high-intensity exercise and has not eaten for more than one hour. What should the nurse teach? A. Consume a carbohydrate snack before exercising B. Take an extra insulin dose immediately C. Skip food until exercise is complete D. Exercise only during the insulin peak 36. Which finding supports exercise for a client with type 1 diabetes? A. Positive urine ketones B. Exercise planned within one hour of insulin injection C. Blood glucose below 70 mg/dL D. Blood glucose at least 100 mg/dL with negative urine ketones 37. When should a client with diabetes avoid exercise? A. During the insulin peak or within one hour after an insulin injection B. When urine ketones are negative C. After carrying a simple-sugar snack D. After eating an indicated carbohydrate snack 38. What should a client with diabetes keep available during exercise? A. A high-dose potassium supplement B. A fluid-restriction schedule C. A simple-sugar snack D. A sedating medication 39. Which blood glucose value meets the review's definition of hypoglycemia? A. A value of 180 mg/dL B. A value of 100 mg/dL C. A value above 250 mg/dL D. A value below 70 mg/dL 40. Which factor is identified as the most common precipitating cause of DKA? A. Negative urine ketones B. Routine low-intensity exercise C. Adequate insulin administration D. Infection 41. Which behavior places a client at risk for DKA? A. Reducing or missing a prescribed insulin dose B. Checking urine ketones C. Eating an indicated snack before exercise D. Taking insulin as prescribed 42. Why should a client with type 1 diabetes avoid exercise when urine ketones are present? A. Exercise immediately removes all ketones B. Ketones confirm that insulin is excessive C. Ketones indicate inadequate insulin, and exercise can further elevate blood glucose D. Ketones indicate normal glucose control 43. Which complication should the nurse monitor for in a client with Crohn's disease? A. Peritonitis, small-bowel obstruction, and fluid or nutritional imbalance B. Decreased risk of malnutrition C. Persistent fluid overload as the expected pattern D. Improved absorption with rapid weight gain 44. A client with Crohn's disease has decreasing urine output and daily weight. What is the priority interpretation? A. The client is showing adequate hydration B. The findings are unrelated to Crohn's disease C. The client may be dehydrated and needs additional fluid assessment D. The findings confirm fluid overload 45. Which diet is described for a client with Crohn's disease? A. High-fiber foods with caffeinated beverages B. Clear liquids only for lifelong management C. Low-calorie, low-protein, and high-fiber D. High-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber 46. Which beverage teaching is appropriate for a client managing Crohn's disease? A. Avoid alcohol and caffeinated beverages because they stimulate the GI tract B. Increase alcohol to improve appetite C. Use caffeine to treat diarrhea D. Replace all water with carbonated drinks 47. Which supplement may be needed by a client with Crohn's disease? A. Calcium gluconate for every meal B. Vitamin B12 injections C. Long-term sublingual nitroglycerin D. Routine magnesium sulfate infusion 48. Which discharge teaching is appropriate when Crohn's disease is complicated by a fistula? A. Stop monitoring drainage B. Apply restraints to protect the wound C. Avoid all skin care at the site D. Teach wound care for the fistula site 49. Which long-term risk is increased in a client with Crohn's disease? A. Elimination of all cancer risk B. Bronze baby syndrome C. Hyperacute kidney rejection D. Colon cancer 50. A client takes one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet for angina and still has pain after five minutes. What should the client do next? A. Wait another hour before seeking help B. Call emergency services, then take a second sublingual tablet C. Take two tablets at the same time D. Take a sustained-release capsule for the attack 51. After phototherapy begins, when should the newborn's bilirubin start to decrease? A. Only after 48 hours B. Immediately before the first treatment C. After one week D. Within 4 to 6 hours 52. Which preparation is appropriate for a male newborn receiving phototherapy? A. Keep him undressed, protect the eyes, and cover the genitalia with a mask after removing its metal strip B. Cover all skin surfaces with thick blankets C. Dress him in several layers and leave the eyes uncovered D. Apply lotion over the entire body 53. Which pair of actions is appropriate during neonatal phototherapy? A. Apply ointment before each lamp check B. Cover all skin and reposition once daily C. Reposition every two hours and avoid lotions or ointments D. Keep one position and apply oil frequently 54. Which action should the nurse take every four hours during phototherapy? A. Stop all feedings until therapy ends B. Remove the newborn for feeding, unmask the eyes, and inspect for inflammation or injury C. Keep the eye mask on during all feedings D. Apply lotion and continue the lights during blood draws 55. Which finding during phototherapy requires reporting? A. Repositioning every two hours B. A bilirubin decrease within six hours C. Protected eyes during treatment D. Dark gray-brown discoloration consistent with bronze baby syndrome 56. A four-hour-old sleeping neonate has a heart rate of 95 beats/min. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A. It is the expected sleeping heart rate B. It is below the expected newborn range and requires assessment C. It requires no follow-up if the infant is asleep D. It confirms adequate cardiac output 57. A pregnant client's rubella titer is negative. Which teaching is appropriate? A. Avoid vaccination permanently B. Become pregnant during the week after vaccination C. Receive the rubella vaccine postpartum and avoid pregnancy for 28 days afterward D. Receive the live vaccine immediately during pregnancy 58. Why is magnesium sulfate administered to a client with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia? A. To increase neuromuscular excitability B. To treat chemotherapy-induced anemia C. To stimulate uterine hemorrhage D. To depress the central nervous system and prevent seizures 59. Which finding suggests magnesium sulfate toxicity? A. Normal reflexes with adequate urine output B. Stable respirations above 12/min C. Absent deep-tendon reflexes, respirations below 12/min, or urine output below 25 to 30 mL/hr D. Expected flushing during the loading bolus only 60. What should the nurse do if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected? A. Delay intervention until the next laboratory draw B. Increase the magnesium infusion rate C. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer IV calcium gluconate D. Administer another magnesium bolus 61. Which fluid and urinary-output targets are appropriate during magnesium sulfate therapy? A. Infuse more than 250 mL/hr and accept anuria B. Restrict fluids to less than 125 mL/hr and maintain urine output at least 25 to 30 mL/hr C. Restrict all fluids and ignore output D. Maintain urine output below 10 mL/hr 62. Which blood loss meets the review's definition of postpartum hemorrhage? A. More than 500 mL after vaginal birth or more than 1,000 mL after cesarean birth B. More than 50 mL after either type of birth C. Any spotting during the postpartum period D. Exactly 100 mL after vaginal birth 63. Which lochia finding most strongly suggests postpartum hemorrhage? A. Expected afterpains during breastfeeding B. Gradually decreasing lochia without clots C. A firm uterus with minimal flow D. Saturation of one pad in 15 to 30 minutes with numerous large clots 64. Which postpartum lochia finding suggests retained placental fragments? A. Afterpains during breastfeeding B. Persistent lochia rubra beyond postpartum day 3 C. Progressive reduction in lochia D. A firm fundus after massage 65. How often should the nurse assess the fundus and lochia during the first postpartum hour? A. Only when the client reports pain B. Once at discharge C. Every four hours D. Every 15 minutes 66. A postpartum client has decreased uterine tone. Which action is appropriate? A. Delay assessment until the next shift B. Massage the fundus and administer an oxytocic as prescribed C. Encourage bladder distention D. Place the client in a crowded hallway 67. Why should the nurse encourage a postpartum client to void? A. To increase postpartum bleeding B. To prevent bladder distention that can interfere with uterine tone C. To suppress endogenous oxytocin D. To produce uterine atony 68. A client with 45% deep partial-thickness burns produces 45 mL of urine over two hours. What should the nurse do? A. Document it as fully adequate B. Wait 24 hours before reassessing C. Restrict all fluid intake D. Notify the provider because the output is below the expected 30 mL/hr 69. When should gentamicin peak and trough specimens be collected? A. Both specimens six hours after the infusion B. Peak 30 minutes after the IV infusion ends; trough immediately before the next infusion C. Peak immediately before the dose and trough after it ends D. Both specimens before the first dose 70. A client receiving gentamicin reports tinnitus and dizziness. What is the priority action? A. Administer furosemide with the drug B. Reassure the client that these findings are unrelated C. Continue the infusion at a faster rate D. Stop the aminoglycoside and notify the provider 71. A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 56 beats/min. What should the client do? A. Exercise vigorously before taking the dose B. Take the dose without rechecking C. Withhold the dose and notify the health-care professional D. Take twice the prescribed dose 72. Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity? A. Normal potassium B. Stable sodium with no symptoms C. Adequate dietary potassium D. Low serum potassium 73. Which teaching is most important for a client taking lithium? A. Severely restrict sodium and fluids B. Exercise in hot weather until dehydrated C. Maintain adequate sodium intake and 2,000 to 3,000 mL of daily fluid, and seek care for vomiting, diarrhea, or excessive sweating D. Stop laboratory monitoring once mood improves 74. A client with schizophrenia reports hearing a voice commanding self-harm. What is the nurse's priority response? A. Leave the client alone to reduce stimulation B. Challenge the client until the belief is abandoned C. Agree that the voice is real D. Provide safety, assess the hallucination directly, and avoid arguing or agreeing with it 75. A manic client says, "I'm bored." Which activity is most appropriate? A. Unsupervised risky investment planning B. A competitive basketball game C. A calm, noncompetitive walk with staff in a low-stimulation area D. A large, highly stimulating group contest 76. A client says, "If I can just live until my daughter's wedding, I will accept whatever happens." Which grief stage is reflected? A. Anger B. Bargaining C. Denial D. Acceptance 77. What is the maximum number of sublingual nitroglycerin tablets described for one anginal episode? A. Three tablets, each separated by five minutes B. Unlimited tablets until pain stops C. Five tablets taken together D. One tablet only, with no emergency call 78. How should sublingual nitroglycerin be stored and replaced? A. Store it in direct sunlight and keep indefinitely B. Keep it in a light-resistant container and discard unused tablets after five months C. Refrigerate it uncovered and replace monthly D. Transfer it to an open weekly pill box 79. What should a client do immediately at the start of an anginal attack? A. Continue activity to improve circulation B. Swallow three tablets at once C. Wait for the pain to become severe D. Stop activity, sit or lie down, and place one tablet under the tongue 80. Which adverse effects should the nurse include when teaching about muscle relaxants used for multiple sclerosis? A. Tachycardia without dizziness B. Dizziness, drowsiness, hypotension, and nausea C. Hypertension, insomnia, and euphoria D. Hyperactivity and increased appetite 81. Which instruction supports energy conservation for a client with multiple sclerosis? A. Use OTC medicines freely without checking interactions B. Seek crowded environments during exacerbations C. Avoid overexertion, stress, temperature extremes, humidity, and people with infections D. Exercise to exhaustion in hot weather 82. A kidney-transplant recipient develops possible manifestations of rejection. What should the nurse do? A. Encourage vigorous exercise B. Immediately notify the surgeon or provider C. Wait until the next clinic visit D. Document the findings without reporting them 83. Why are hypotension and excessive diuresis urgent after kidney transplantation? A. They are expected and never require reporting B. They guarantee normal graft function C. They reduce blood flow to the transplanted kidney and threaten graft survival D. They prevent all forms of rejection 84. Which donor type offers the greatest chance of kidney-graft survival according to the review? A. Any unmatched donor regardless of perfusion B. A living related donor with matching tissue type C. A nonviable organ from a nonheartbeating donor D. A cadaver organ that was not perfused 85. Which cluster of findings is consistent with acute kidney-transplant rejection? A. Isolated pink urine immediately after surgery without other changes B. Improved urine output with stable electrolytes C. Oliguria, fever, increased blood pressure, tender graft, and elevated creatinine D. Clear urine with falling BUN and no tenderness 86. Which statement describes hyperacute kidney-transplant rejection? A. It develops gradually over years and requires no monitoring B. It occurs only after dialysis is restarted C. It appears within 48 hours and is treated by removing the transplanted kidney D. It is treated only with a low-fiber diet 87. Which course is characteristic of chronic kidney-transplant rejection? A. Resolution after one dose of nitroglycerin B. Gradual changes over months to years until dialysis may again be required C. Sudden onset within 48 hours followed by immediate recovery D. No changes in BUN or creatinine 88. Which medication is identified for chemotherapy-related anemia? A. Lithium B. Epoetin alfa C. Nitroglycerin D. Calcium gluconate 89. Which chemotherapy adverse effect is described as the most significant? A. Temporary increase in red blood cells B. Improved platelet production C. Permanent protection from infection D. Immunosuppression and neutropenia from bone-marrow suppression 90. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor during chemotherapy? A. Only sodium and potassium B. WBC, absolute neutrophil count, platelets, hemoglobin, and hematocrit C. Only amylase and lipase D. Only bilirubin and fetal heart rate 91. Which assessment finding is especially important in chemotherapy-associated thrombocytopenia? A. Bruising and bleeding gums B. Increased muscle strength C. Clear nasal skin D. Improved clotting 92. Which infection-prevention plan is appropriate for a hospitalized client receiving chemotherapy? A. Encourage attendance at crowded events B. Limit hand hygiene to visible soil C. Use a private room when possible and emphasize hand hygiene and avoiding ill visitors D. Place the client with anyone who has a respiratory infection 93. Why can infection be difficult to recognize in a client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia? A. The client may not develop a high fever or purulent drainage B. Neutropenia always causes a very high fever C. The WBC count is unrelated to infection risk D. Purulent drainage is always present 94. Which client has a risk factor for sepsis identified in the review? A. A client with intact skin and no illness B. A healthy adult without invasive devices C. A young adult with no infection exposure D. An older adult with a central line, chronic disease, and a wound 95. How does the review distinguish septic shock from sepsis? A. Sepsis always has a lower mortality risk than wellness B. Septic shock affects only the skin C. Septic shock is unrelated to infection D. Septic shock includes circulatory, cellular, and metabolic abnormalities 96. During disaster triage, which client should receive a green tag? A. A walking wounded client with a minor sprain B. A client with massive head trauma who is expected to die C. A client with airway obstruction D. A client with active hemorrhage and shock 97. Which injury is most appropriate for a yellow disaster-triage tag? A. A minor abrasion in a walking client B. An immediate airway obstruction C. An open fracture with a distal pulse requiring treatment within 30 minutes to two hours D. Massive head trauma with no expected survival 98. Which client should receive a red tag during disaster triage? A. A client with respiratory distress and unstable vital signs B. A client with a minor contusion C. A client expected to die from massive head trauma D. A walking client with a closed sprain 99. Which client is most consistent with a black disaster-triage tag? A. A client with massive head trauma who is expected to die B. A client with a treatable open fracture and distal pulse C. A walking client with abrasions D. A client with chest pain who can benefit from immediate treatment 100. How should contaminated clothing be handled during hazardous-material triage? A. Handle it directly with bare hands B. Use tongs or forceps and place the clothing in biohazard waste C. Place it with clean linens D. Shake it near other clients