1
NUR 4590 RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY - EXAM 3 LATEST
2026/2027 | MULTIPLE-CHOICE | 40 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: ADVANCED CARDIOVASCULAR & RESPIRATORY - Questions 1-9
Q1: Cardiogenic Shock - Assessment
A patient with cardiogenic shock would most likely exhibit which finding?
A. Warm, dry skin and bounding pulses
B. Cool, clammy skin and weak pulses
C. Flushed skin and hypotension
D. Normal skin temperature and bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock causes decreased cardiac output, resulting in cool, clammy skin, weak
pulses, hypotension, tachycardia, and pulmonary edema. Warm, dry skin with bounding pulses is
seen in septic shock (early). Flushed skin is not typical. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Acute Coronary Syndrome - ECG Changes
A patient with ST-segment elevation on ECG is diagnosed with:
A. Unstable angina
B. STEMI (ST-elevation myocardial infarction)
C. NSTEMI (non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction)
D. Prinzmetal's angina
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STEMI is characterized by ST-segment elevation on ECG and indicates transmural
infarction requiring immediate reperfusion therapy. NSTEMI has ST depression or T-wave inversion.
Unstable angina has no ECG changes or nonspecific changes. Prinzmetal's is vasospastic angina.
[100% CORRECT]
Q3: Cardiac Tamponade - Signs
A patient with cardiac tamponade would most likely exhibit which classic finding?
A. Widened pulse pressure
B. Narrowed pulse pressure and muffled heart sounds
C. Bounding pulses and hypertension
D. Distended neck veins only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and
distended neck veins. Narrowed pulse pressure is also present. Widened pulse pressure is seen in
aortic regurgitation. Hypertension is not typical. Distended neck veins alone is insufficient. [100%
CORRECT]
, 2
Q4: Pulmonary Embolism - Risk Factors
Which patient is at highest risk for pulmonary embolism?
A. A patient who ambulates frequently
B. A patient who is immobile post-surgery
C. A patient with hypertension
D. A patient with diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility is a major risk factor for DVT and subsequent pulmonary embolism. Post-
surgical patients are at high risk. Frequent ambulation reduces risk. Hypertension and diabetes are
not direct risk factors for PE, though they may contribute to other vascular conditions. [100%
CORRECT]
Q5: Respiratory Failure - ABG Criteria
Acute respiratory failure is defined as PaO2 < 60 mmHg with which additional finding?
A. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
B. PaCO2 > 50 mmHg (or pH < 7.30)
C. HCO3 > 30 mEq/L
D. pH > 7.45
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type II respiratory failure requires PaO2 < 60 mmHg AND PaCO2 > 50 mmHg (with pH <
7.30 in acute cases). Type I respiratory failure has PaO2 < 60 mmHg with normal or low PaCO2. HCO3
> 30 indicates metabolic compensation. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: ARDS - Pathophysiology
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by:
A. Increased surfactant production
B. Alveolar-capillary membrane damage and increased permeability
C. Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
D. Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ARDS involves diffuse alveolar-capillary membrane damage leading to increased
permeability, pulmonary edema, and impaired gas exchange. Surfactant production is decreased,
not increased. Pulmonary vascular resistance increases. Bronchospasm is not the primary pathology.
[100% CORRECT]
Q7: Heart Failure - Medications
A patient with heart failure is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which effect does this medication
provide?
A. Increases preload
B. Reduces afterload and preload
NUR 4590 RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY - EXAM 3 LATEST
2026/2027 | MULTIPLE-CHOICE | 40 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: ADVANCED CARDIOVASCULAR & RESPIRATORY - Questions 1-9
Q1: Cardiogenic Shock - Assessment
A patient with cardiogenic shock would most likely exhibit which finding?
A. Warm, dry skin and bounding pulses
B. Cool, clammy skin and weak pulses
C. Flushed skin and hypotension
D. Normal skin temperature and bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock causes decreased cardiac output, resulting in cool, clammy skin, weak
pulses, hypotension, tachycardia, and pulmonary edema. Warm, dry skin with bounding pulses is
seen in septic shock (early). Flushed skin is not typical. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Acute Coronary Syndrome - ECG Changes
A patient with ST-segment elevation on ECG is diagnosed with:
A. Unstable angina
B. STEMI (ST-elevation myocardial infarction)
C. NSTEMI (non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction)
D. Prinzmetal's angina
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: STEMI is characterized by ST-segment elevation on ECG and indicates transmural
infarction requiring immediate reperfusion therapy. NSTEMI has ST depression or T-wave inversion.
Unstable angina has no ECG changes or nonspecific changes. Prinzmetal's is vasospastic angina.
[100% CORRECT]
Q3: Cardiac Tamponade - Signs
A patient with cardiac tamponade would most likely exhibit which classic finding?
A. Widened pulse pressure
B. Narrowed pulse pressure and muffled heart sounds
C. Bounding pulses and hypertension
D. Distended neck veins only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and
distended neck veins. Narrowed pulse pressure is also present. Widened pulse pressure is seen in
aortic regurgitation. Hypertension is not typical. Distended neck veins alone is insufficient. [100%
CORRECT]
, 2
Q4: Pulmonary Embolism - Risk Factors
Which patient is at highest risk for pulmonary embolism?
A. A patient who ambulates frequently
B. A patient who is immobile post-surgery
C. A patient with hypertension
D. A patient with diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Immobility is a major risk factor for DVT and subsequent pulmonary embolism. Post-
surgical patients are at high risk. Frequent ambulation reduces risk. Hypertension and diabetes are
not direct risk factors for PE, though they may contribute to other vascular conditions. [100%
CORRECT]
Q5: Respiratory Failure - ABG Criteria
Acute respiratory failure is defined as PaO2 < 60 mmHg with which additional finding?
A. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
B. PaCO2 > 50 mmHg (or pH < 7.30)
C. HCO3 > 30 mEq/L
D. pH > 7.45
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type II respiratory failure requires PaO2 < 60 mmHg AND PaCO2 > 50 mmHg (with pH <
7.30 in acute cases). Type I respiratory failure has PaO2 < 60 mmHg with normal or low PaCO2. HCO3
> 30 indicates metabolic compensation. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: ARDS - Pathophysiology
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by:
A. Increased surfactant production
B. Alveolar-capillary membrane damage and increased permeability
C. Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
D. Bronchospasm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ARDS involves diffuse alveolar-capillary membrane damage leading to increased
permeability, pulmonary edema, and impaired gas exchange. Surfactant production is decreased,
not increased. Pulmonary vascular resistance increases. Bronchospasm is not the primary pathology.
[100% CORRECT]
Q7: Heart Failure - Medications
A patient with heart failure is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which effect does this medication
provide?
A. Increases preload
B. Reduces afterload and preload
