ATI PN Pharmacology – ATI Practical Nursing Pharmacology
Study Guide, Original Practice Questions & Answers,
Comprehensive ATI PN Pharmacology Exam Preparation,
Pharmacological Principles, Medication Administration,
Dosage & Fluid Calculations, Pharmacokinetics, Drug
Classifications, Drug Interactions, Contraindications,
Adverse Effects, Patient Teaching, Medication Safety,
Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Neurological, Endocrine,
Gastrointestinal, Reproductive, Musculoskeletal, Pain &
Inflammation, Immune & Infectious Medications & Clinical
Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a half-life
of 12 hours. The client received the first dose at 0800. At what time will the
medication serum concentration be approximately 50% of the initial dose?
A. 1400
B. 2000
C. 0200
D. 0800
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2000
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to
decrease by 50%. If the half-life is 12 hours, the concentration will be 50% of the initial
dose 12 hours after administration. 0800 + 12 hours = 2000.
Question 2: A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a
client who is receiving lithium carbonate. Which of the following laboratory
values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Serum sodium
Rationale: Lithium is a monovalent cation that competes with sodium ions in the body.
Low serum sodium levels can lead to increased lithium reabsorption in the kidneys,
increasing the risk for lithium toxicity. Therefore, monitoring serum sodium is essential.
Question 3: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include?
A. Apply the patch to the same site each day to ensure consistent absorption.
B. Remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in the morning.
C. Cut the patch in half if you experience a headache.
D. Apply the patch to a hairless area and cover it with a tight bandage.
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. Remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in
the morning.
Rationale: Transdermal nitroglycerin is often prescribed with a 12- to 14-hour nitrate-
free interval (e.g., at night) to prevent tolerance. The patch is typically applied in the
morning and removed at bedtime.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin
and furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following
electrolyte imbalances that increases the risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Low serum
potassium levels increase the sensitivity of the myocardium to digoxin, thereby
increasing the risk for digoxin toxicity.
Question 5: A nurse is administering an enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube.
The nurse should hold the feeding and contact the provider for which of the
following findings?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
C. The client reports abdominal cramping
D. The tube is located 5 cm from the original insertion mark
CORRECT ANSWER: D. The tube is located 5 cm from the original insertion
mark
Rationale: A change in the external length of the tube indicates that the tube may have
migrated or become dislodged. The nurse should stop the feeding, assess the
placement, and notify the provider.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate to reduce the risk of "Red
Man Syndrome"?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV push.
B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes.
C. Pre-medicate the client with an anti-emetic.
D. Flush the IV line with normal saline before and after administration.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes.
, Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a histamine-release reaction characterized by
flushing and rash. It is most commonly caused by a rapid infusion of vancomycin.
Infusing the medication over 60 minutes or longer significantly reduces this risk.
Question 7: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will report any dark, tarry stools to my doctor."
B. "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use an electric razor instead of a razor blade."
D. "I will have my blood drawn regularly to check my INR."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy
vegetables."
Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which is the antidote for
warfarin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. Clients should maintain a consistent
intake of vitamin K, not increase it, to keep the INR stable.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of
0.9% sodium chloride at 125 mL/hr. Which of the following complications
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Heart failure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Hypovolemia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart failure
Rationale: 0.9% sodium chloride is an isotonic crystalloid solution. Excessive
administration can lead to fluid volume overload, which can precipitate or exacerbate
heart failure, especially in clients with cardiac or renal conditions.
Question 9: A nurse is administering morphine sulfate 2 mg IV to a client who
reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor.
B. Have naloxone readily available.
C. Assess the client's pain level.
D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Have naloxone readily available.
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is the opioid
antagonist that reverses this effect. The nurse must be prepared to intervene. While
reassessment is important, the first action is to ensure safety by having the antidote
ready.
Study Guide, Original Practice Questions & Answers,
Comprehensive ATI PN Pharmacology Exam Preparation,
Pharmacological Principles, Medication Administration,
Dosage & Fluid Calculations, Pharmacokinetics, Drug
Classifications, Drug Interactions, Contraindications,
Adverse Effects, Patient Teaching, Medication Safety,
Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Neurological, Endocrine,
Gastrointestinal, Reproductive, Musculoskeletal, Pain &
Inflammation, Immune & Infectious Medications & Clinical
Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a half-life
of 12 hours. The client received the first dose at 0800. At what time will the
medication serum concentration be approximately 50% of the initial dose?
A. 1400
B. 2000
C. 0200
D. 0800
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2000
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to
decrease by 50%. If the half-life is 12 hours, the concentration will be 50% of the initial
dose 12 hours after administration. 0800 + 12 hours = 2000.
Question 2: A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a
client who is receiving lithium carbonate. Which of the following laboratory
values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Serum sodium
Rationale: Lithium is a monovalent cation that competes with sodium ions in the body.
Low serum sodium levels can lead to increased lithium reabsorption in the kidneys,
increasing the risk for lithium toxicity. Therefore, monitoring serum sodium is essential.
Question 3: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include?
A. Apply the patch to the same site each day to ensure consistent absorption.
B. Remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in the morning.
C. Cut the patch in half if you experience a headache.
D. Apply the patch to a hairless area and cover it with a tight bandage.
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. Remove the patch at bedtime and apply a new one in
the morning.
Rationale: Transdermal nitroglycerin is often prescribed with a 12- to 14-hour nitrate-
free interval (e.g., at night) to prevent tolerance. The patch is typically applied in the
morning and removed at bedtime.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin
and furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following
electrolyte imbalances that increases the risk for digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypercalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Low serum
potassium levels increase the sensitivity of the myocardium to digoxin, thereby
increasing the risk for digoxin toxicity.
Question 5: A nurse is administering an enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube.
The nurse should hold the feeding and contact the provider for which of the
following findings?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
C. The client reports abdominal cramping
D. The tube is located 5 cm from the original insertion mark
CORRECT ANSWER: D. The tube is located 5 cm from the original insertion
mark
Rationale: A change in the external length of the tube indicates that the tube may have
migrated or become dislodged. The nurse should stop the feeding, assess the
placement, and notify the provider.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate to reduce the risk of "Red
Man Syndrome"?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV push.
B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes.
C. Pre-medicate the client with an anti-emetic.
D. Flush the IV line with normal saline before and after administration.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Infuse the medication over at least 60 minutes.
, Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a histamine-release reaction characterized by
flushing and rash. It is most commonly caused by a rapid infusion of vancomycin.
Infusing the medication over 60 minutes or longer significantly reduces this risk.
Question 7: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will report any dark, tarry stools to my doctor."
B. "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will use an electric razor instead of a razor blade."
D. "I will have my blood drawn regularly to check my INR."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will increase my intake of dark green leafy
vegetables."
Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which is the antidote for
warfarin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. Clients should maintain a consistent
intake of vitamin K, not increase it, to keep the INR stable.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of
0.9% sodium chloride at 125 mL/hr. Which of the following complications
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Heart failure
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Hypovolemia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart failure
Rationale: 0.9% sodium chloride is an isotonic crystalloid solution. Excessive
administration can lead to fluid volume overload, which can precipitate or exacerbate
heart failure, especially in clients with cardiac or renal conditions.
Question 9: A nurse is administering morphine sulfate 2 mg IV to a client who
reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor.
B. Have naloxone readily available.
C. Assess the client's pain level.
D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Have naloxone readily available.
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is the opioid
antagonist that reverses this effect. The nurse must be prepared to intervene. While
reassessment is important, the first action is to ensure safety by having the antidote
ready.
