NUR 103 EXAM
NUR 103 Health Assessment Mastery Exam:
Comprehensive Nursing Assessment, Physical
Examination Skills, Patient Evaluation Strategies, and
Clinical Reasoning with 200 Practice Questions
NUR 103 – Health Assessment Complete Nursing Assessment Examination
Comprehensive 200-Question Exam
QUESTION 1:
A 68-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath and fatigue.
During the initial interview, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate opening
statement to establish therapeutic communication?
A. "Why did you wait so long to come in with these symptoms?"
B. "Tell me what concerns you most about your breathing difficulties."
C. "Your breathing sounds like it's probably just anxiety-related."
D. "I need you to describe every symptom you've had for the past month."
ANSWER: B. "Tell me what concerns you most about your breathing difficulties."
RATIONALE: Option B uses an open-ended question that allows the patient to express their
primary concerns and establishes therapeutic communication. Option A uses "why" which can sound
accusatory and judgmental. Option C makes an assumption without proper assessment. Option D is
too restrictive and may overwhelm the patient, potentially missing the most pressing concern.
QUESTION 2:
When performing a comprehensive health assessment, which sequence represents the CORRECT
order of examination techniques for the abdomen?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
ANSWER: C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
RATIONALE: For abdominal assessment, the correct order is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
then palpation. This sequence is used because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds and
abdominal tenderness. Auscultation must be performed before palpation to obtain accurate bowel
sound assessment.
, NUR 103 EXAM
QUESTION 3:
A nurse is assessing a patient's mental status using the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
Which finding would indicate a potential cognitive impairment?
A. Patient correctly states the current date and location
B. Patient recalls 3 objects after 5 minutes
C. Patient spells "WORLD" backward as "DLROW"
D. Patient draws intersecting pentagons with 6 angles
ANSWER: B. Patient recalls 3 objects after 5 minutes
RATIONALE: The MMSE requires recall of 3 objects after 5 minutes. Failure to recall all 3 objects
indicates potential cognitive impairment. Options A, C, and D represent expected normal findings on
the MMSE.
QUESTION 4:
Select all that apply: Which of the following are components of a comprehensive health history?
A. Biographic data
B. Reason for seeking care
C. History of present illness
D. Past medical history
E. Current vital signs only
F. Review of systems
G. Functional assessment
ANSWER: A, B, C, D, F, G
RATIONALE: A comprehensive health history includes biographic data, reason for seeking care,
history of present illness, past medical history, family history, review of systems, and functional
assessment. Current vital signs are part of the physical examination, not the health history interview.
QUESTION 5:
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) in a patient who
is sitting at 45 degrees. This finding is indicative of:
A. Dehydration
B. Hypovolemia
C. Right-sided heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
ANSWER: C. Right-sided heart failure
RATIONALE: Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees is an abnormal finding indicating
elevated central venous pressure, commonly seen in right-sided heart failure. JVD would be absent
, NUR 103 EXAM
or flat in dehydration and hypovolemia. While pulmonary embolism may cause JVD, it is most
classically associated with right-sided heart failure.
QUESTION 6:
A patient reports using a peak flow meter at home for asthma management. The patient's personal
best peak flow is 400 L/min. Today's reading is 280 L/min. This reading represents what percentage
of the patient's personal best?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
ANSWER: C. 70%
RATIONALE: 280/400 = 0.70 or 70%. In asthma management, readings 50-80% of personal best
indicate a yellow zone, requiring caution and potential medication adjustment.
QUESTION 7:
When assessing a patient's pain, which of the following is considered the MOST reliable indicator of
pain intensity?
A. Patient's facial expressions
B. Patient's self-report using a pain scale
C. Vital sign changes
D. Family member's description
ANSWER: B. Patient's self-report using a pain scale
RATIONALE: The patient's self-report is the most reliable and valid indicator of pain intensity.
Pain is subjective, and while facial expressions and vital signs may provide clues, they are not as
reliable as the patient's own report.
QUESTION 8:
True or False: In a neurological assessment, the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates eye opening,
verbal response, and motor response, with scores ranging from 3 to 15.
ANSWER: True
RATIONALE: The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of three components: eye opening (1-4 points),
verbal response (1-5 points), and motor response (1-6 points), with total scores ranging from 3 (deep
coma) to 15 (fully alert).
QUESTION 9:
, NUR 103 EXAM
A nurse palpates a patient's radial pulse and notes it is weak and thready. The nurse documents this
finding as:
A. 2+
B. 3+
C. 1+
D. 0
ANSWER: C. 1+
RATIONALE: Pulse amplitude is rated on a 0-3+ scale: 0 = absent, 1+ = weak/thready
(diminished), 2+ = normal, 3+ = full/bounding. Therefore, a weak and thready pulse is documented
as 1+.
QUESTION 10:
Which of the following breath sounds is considered NORMAL over the peripheral lung fields?
A. Bronchial
B. Bronchovesicular
C. Vesicular
D. Tracheal
ANSWER: C. Vesicular
RATIONALE: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard over peripheral lung
fields. Bronchial sounds are heard over the trachea, bronchovesicular sounds are heard over the
main bronchi, and tracheal sounds are heard over the trachea.
QUESTION 11:
A 75-year-old patient reports difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds. The nurse suspects which type
of hearing loss?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Mixed hearing loss
D. Central hearing loss
ANSWER: B. Sensorineural hearing loss
RATIONALE: Sensorineural hearing loss (presbycusis) is age-related hearing loss that typically
affects high-pitched sounds first. It results from damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve.
Conductive hearing loss typically affects all frequencies equally and is related to external or middle
ear problems.
QUESTION 12:
Select all that apply: Which of the following are risk factors for pressure ulcer development?
NUR 103 Health Assessment Mastery Exam:
Comprehensive Nursing Assessment, Physical
Examination Skills, Patient Evaluation Strategies, and
Clinical Reasoning with 200 Practice Questions
NUR 103 – Health Assessment Complete Nursing Assessment Examination
Comprehensive 200-Question Exam
QUESTION 1:
A 68-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath and fatigue.
During the initial interview, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate opening
statement to establish therapeutic communication?
A. "Why did you wait so long to come in with these symptoms?"
B. "Tell me what concerns you most about your breathing difficulties."
C. "Your breathing sounds like it's probably just anxiety-related."
D. "I need you to describe every symptom you've had for the past month."
ANSWER: B. "Tell me what concerns you most about your breathing difficulties."
RATIONALE: Option B uses an open-ended question that allows the patient to express their
primary concerns and establishes therapeutic communication. Option A uses "why" which can sound
accusatory and judgmental. Option C makes an assumption without proper assessment. Option D is
too restrictive and may overwhelm the patient, potentially missing the most pressing concern.
QUESTION 2:
When performing a comprehensive health assessment, which sequence represents the CORRECT
order of examination techniques for the abdomen?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
ANSWER: C. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
RATIONALE: For abdominal assessment, the correct order is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
then palpation. This sequence is used because palpation and percussion can alter bowel sounds and
abdominal tenderness. Auscultation must be performed before palpation to obtain accurate bowel
sound assessment.
, NUR 103 EXAM
QUESTION 3:
A nurse is assessing a patient's mental status using the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
Which finding would indicate a potential cognitive impairment?
A. Patient correctly states the current date and location
B. Patient recalls 3 objects after 5 minutes
C. Patient spells "WORLD" backward as "DLROW"
D. Patient draws intersecting pentagons with 6 angles
ANSWER: B. Patient recalls 3 objects after 5 minutes
RATIONALE: The MMSE requires recall of 3 objects after 5 minutes. Failure to recall all 3 objects
indicates potential cognitive impairment. Options A, C, and D represent expected normal findings on
the MMSE.
QUESTION 4:
Select all that apply: Which of the following are components of a comprehensive health history?
A. Biographic data
B. Reason for seeking care
C. History of present illness
D. Past medical history
E. Current vital signs only
F. Review of systems
G. Functional assessment
ANSWER: A, B, C, D, F, G
RATIONALE: A comprehensive health history includes biographic data, reason for seeking care,
history of present illness, past medical history, family history, review of systems, and functional
assessment. Current vital signs are part of the physical examination, not the health history interview.
QUESTION 5:
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) in a patient who
is sitting at 45 degrees. This finding is indicative of:
A. Dehydration
B. Hypovolemia
C. Right-sided heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
ANSWER: C. Right-sided heart failure
RATIONALE: Jugular venous distention (JVD) at 45 degrees is an abnormal finding indicating
elevated central venous pressure, commonly seen in right-sided heart failure. JVD would be absent
, NUR 103 EXAM
or flat in dehydration and hypovolemia. While pulmonary embolism may cause JVD, it is most
classically associated with right-sided heart failure.
QUESTION 6:
A patient reports using a peak flow meter at home for asthma management. The patient's personal
best peak flow is 400 L/min. Today's reading is 280 L/min. This reading represents what percentage
of the patient's personal best?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
ANSWER: C. 70%
RATIONALE: 280/400 = 0.70 or 70%. In asthma management, readings 50-80% of personal best
indicate a yellow zone, requiring caution and potential medication adjustment.
QUESTION 7:
When assessing a patient's pain, which of the following is considered the MOST reliable indicator of
pain intensity?
A. Patient's facial expressions
B. Patient's self-report using a pain scale
C. Vital sign changes
D. Family member's description
ANSWER: B. Patient's self-report using a pain scale
RATIONALE: The patient's self-report is the most reliable and valid indicator of pain intensity.
Pain is subjective, and while facial expressions and vital signs may provide clues, they are not as
reliable as the patient's own report.
QUESTION 8:
True or False: In a neurological assessment, the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates eye opening,
verbal response, and motor response, with scores ranging from 3 to 15.
ANSWER: True
RATIONALE: The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of three components: eye opening (1-4 points),
verbal response (1-5 points), and motor response (1-6 points), with total scores ranging from 3 (deep
coma) to 15 (fully alert).
QUESTION 9:
, NUR 103 EXAM
A nurse palpates a patient's radial pulse and notes it is weak and thready. The nurse documents this
finding as:
A. 2+
B. 3+
C. 1+
D. 0
ANSWER: C. 1+
RATIONALE: Pulse amplitude is rated on a 0-3+ scale: 0 = absent, 1+ = weak/thready
(diminished), 2+ = normal, 3+ = full/bounding. Therefore, a weak and thready pulse is documented
as 1+.
QUESTION 10:
Which of the following breath sounds is considered NORMAL over the peripheral lung fields?
A. Bronchial
B. Bronchovesicular
C. Vesicular
D. Tracheal
ANSWER: C. Vesicular
RATIONALE: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard over peripheral lung
fields. Bronchial sounds are heard over the trachea, bronchovesicular sounds are heard over the
main bronchi, and tracheal sounds are heard over the trachea.
QUESTION 11:
A 75-year-old patient reports difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds. The nurse suspects which type
of hearing loss?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Mixed hearing loss
D. Central hearing loss
ANSWER: B. Sensorineural hearing loss
RATIONALE: Sensorineural hearing loss (presbycusis) is age-related hearing loss that typically
affects high-pitched sounds first. It results from damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve.
Conductive hearing loss typically affects all frequencies equally and is related to external or middle
ear problems.
QUESTION 12:
Select all that apply: Which of the following are risk factors for pressure ulcer development?
