Nursing 354 Advanced Adult Health
Exam Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A Instant Download Pdf
1. A patient with acute pulmonary edema is experiencing severe dyspnea and
has an oxygen saturation of 82%. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A. Administer intravenous fluids
B. Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage oral fluid intake
D. Place the patient flat in bed
Answer: B. Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
Rationale: High-Fowler’s positioning promotes maximum lung expansion and
decreases venous return, helping improve oxygenation in acute pulmonary
edema.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Dependent peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
,Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, producing
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen
therapy. Which oxygen saturation range is generally an appropriate target
for many patients with chronic carbon dioxide retention?
A. 100%
B. 95–100%
C. 88–92%
D. 70–75%
Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: A target of approximately 88–92% is commonly used for patients with
COPD who are at risk for hypercapnia, while avoiding unnecessary excessive
oxygen administration.
4. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction reports crushing substernal
chest pain. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to
reduce platelet aggregation?
A. Aspirin
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: A. Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and is an important early
therapy in suspected acute coronary syndrome unless contraindicated.
, 5. Which laboratory value is most important for evaluating kidney filtration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum albumin
Answer: A. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Serum creatinine is a useful indicator of renal filtration and generally
rises when kidney function declines.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L.
Which finding requires immediate attention?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Dry skin
C. Increased appetite
D. Mild thirst
Answer: A. Muscle weakness
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness and life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias, making it an emergency.
7. Which ECG change is commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. ST elevation in all leads
D. U waves
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are a classic early ECG manifestation of
hyperkalemia.
, 8. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving treatment. Which
intervention is generally initiated first?
A. Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement
B. Oral potassium supplementation
C. Long-acting insulin only
D. Fluid restriction
Answer: A. Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement
Rationale: Significant dehydration is a major component of diabetic
ketoacidosis, so initial management typically emphasizes isotonic fluid
resuscitation followed by insulin and electrolyte management.
9. Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypoglycemia?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphoresis and tremors
D. Kussmaul respirations
Answer: C. Diaphoresis and tremors
Rationale: Adrenergic manifestations of hypoglycemia include sweating,
tremors, palpitations, anxiety, and tachycardia.
10.A patient with Addison disease is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Exam Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A Instant Download Pdf
1. A patient with acute pulmonary edema is experiencing severe dyspnea and
has an oxygen saturation of 82%. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A. Administer intravenous fluids
B. Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
C. Encourage oral fluid intake
D. Place the patient flat in bed
Answer: B. Place the patient in high-Fowler’s position
Rationale: High-Fowler’s positioning promotes maximum lung expansion and
decreases venous return, helping improve oxygenation in acute pulmonary
edema.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Dependent peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Enlarged liver
,Answer: C. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, producing
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
3. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen
therapy. Which oxygen saturation range is generally an appropriate target
for many patients with chronic carbon dioxide retention?
A. 100%
B. 95–100%
C. 88–92%
D. 70–75%
Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale: A target of approximately 88–92% is commonly used for patients with
COPD who are at risk for hypercapnia, while avoiding unnecessary excessive
oxygen administration.
4. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction reports crushing substernal
chest pain. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to
reduce platelet aggregation?
A. Aspirin
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: A. Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and is an important early
therapy in suspected acute coronary syndrome unless contraindicated.
, 5. Which laboratory value is most important for evaluating kidney filtration?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Serum calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum albumin
Answer: A. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Serum creatinine is a useful indicator of renal filtration and generally
rises when kidney function declines.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L.
Which finding requires immediate attention?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Dry skin
C. Increased appetite
D. Mild thirst
Answer: A. Muscle weakness
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness and life-threatening
cardiac dysrhythmias, making it an emergency.
7. Which ECG change is commonly associated with hyperkalemia?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. ST elevation in all leads
D. U waves
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Tall, peaked T waves are a classic early ECG manifestation of
hyperkalemia.
, 8. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is receiving treatment. Which
intervention is generally initiated first?
A. Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement
B. Oral potassium supplementation
C. Long-acting insulin only
D. Fluid restriction
Answer: A. Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement
Rationale: Significant dehydration is a major component of diabetic
ketoacidosis, so initial management typically emphasizes isotonic fluid
resuscitation followed by insulin and electrolyte management.
9. Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypoglycemia?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphoresis and tremors
D. Kussmaul respirations
Answer: C. Diaphoresis and tremors
Rationale: Adrenergic manifestations of hypoglycemia include sweating,
tremors, palpitations, anxiety, and tachycardia.
10.A patient with Addison disease is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
