Test Bank for Safe Maternity and Pediatric Nursing Care 3rd Edition
(F.A Davis , 2026) by Luanne Linnard Palmer,
,Antepartum Nursing Care Exam.
A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks’ gestation. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
Morning sickness
Urinary frequency
Painless vaginal bleeding
Breast tenderness
Answer: c
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester may indicate an
impending miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Morning sickness, urinary
frequency, and breast tenderness are common early pregnancy symptoms.
A pregnant client’s rubella titer is 1:8. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Document as immune
Administer MMR vaccine postpartum
Isolate the client immediately
Repeat titer in 2 weeks
Answer: b
*Rationale: A titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. MMR is a live vaccine
contraindicated during pregnancy but should be given postpartum to protect future
pregnancies.*
A nurse teaches a client about kegel exercises. What is the primary goal?
Prevent constipation
Strengthen pelvic floor muscles
Reduce back pain
Increase fetal movement
Answer: b
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle, which supports
the bladder and uterus, reducing stress incontinence and preparing for labor.
At 36 weeks, a client reports regular contractions every 5 minutes. What should the
nurse do first?
Tell the client to drink water and rest
Assess for cervical change
Send client home
Administer terbutaline
,Answer: b
Rationale: Regular contractions before 37 weeks require evaluation for preterm
labor. Cervical change confirms true labor.
A client with gestational diabetes is reviewing diet instructions. Which statement
indicates understanding?
“I can eat unlimited fruit.”
“I should avoid all carbohydrates.”
“I will eat small, frequent meals.”
“I don’t need to check my blood sugar.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels.
Carbohydrates should be distributed, not eliminated.
A nurse notes a client’s blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg at 32 weeks. Urine
dipstick shows 2+ protein. Which condition is suspected? a) Gestational
hypertension
Chronic hypertension
Preeclampsia
Eclampsia
Answer: c
*Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines
preeclampsia. Eclampsia requires seizures.*
A pregnant woman reports leg pain and swelling in one calf. What is the priority
action? a) Massage the calf
Do not massage; order a Doppler ultrasound
Apply warm compresses
Encourage ambulation
Answer: b
Rationale: Unilateral calf pain/swelling suggests deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Massage could dislodge a clot, causing pulmonary embolism.
A client at 28 weeks asks about the kick count. What is normal?
At least 5 kicks per hour
At least 15 kicks per 12 hours
At least 10 kicks per 2 hours
Any movement is fine
Answer: c
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
recommends at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Fewer warrants evaluation.
, Which immunization is safe to give during pregnancy?
MMR
Varicella
Tdap
HPV
Answer: c
Rationale:
Tdap
(tetanus,
diphtheria,
pertussis) is
recommende
d between
27–36 weeks
to pass
antibodies
to the fetus.
Others are
live
vaccines.
A nurse explains chloasma to a primigravida. Which statement is correct?
“It is a sign of liver disease.”
“It is a darkening of facial skin due to hormones.”
“It will never go away.”
“It requires immediate treatment.”
Answer: b
Rationale: Chloasma (mask of pregnancy) is benign hyperpigmentation caused
by estrogen and progesterone. It often fades postpartum.
A client asks about taking ibuprofen for headaches at 30 weeks. What is the best
response?
“It is safe at any gestation.”
“Avoid ibuprofen; it can cause fetal renal issues and premature ductal closure.”
“Use a double dose for migraines.”
“Only take it in the third trimester.”
Answer: b
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen are avoided after 30 weeks due to risk of
premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.
(F.A Davis , 2026) by Luanne Linnard Palmer,
,Antepartum Nursing Care Exam.
A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks’ gestation. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
Morning sickness
Urinary frequency
Painless vaginal bleeding
Breast tenderness
Answer: c
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester may indicate an
impending miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Morning sickness, urinary
frequency, and breast tenderness are common early pregnancy symptoms.
A pregnant client’s rubella titer is 1:8. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Document as immune
Administer MMR vaccine postpartum
Isolate the client immediately
Repeat titer in 2 weeks
Answer: b
*Rationale: A titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. MMR is a live vaccine
contraindicated during pregnancy but should be given postpartum to protect future
pregnancies.*
A nurse teaches a client about kegel exercises. What is the primary goal?
Prevent constipation
Strengthen pelvic floor muscles
Reduce back pain
Increase fetal movement
Answer: b
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle, which supports
the bladder and uterus, reducing stress incontinence and preparing for labor.
At 36 weeks, a client reports regular contractions every 5 minutes. What should the
nurse do first?
Tell the client to drink water and rest
Assess for cervical change
Send client home
Administer terbutaline
,Answer: b
Rationale: Regular contractions before 37 weeks require evaluation for preterm
labor. Cervical change confirms true labor.
A client with gestational diabetes is reviewing diet instructions. Which statement
indicates understanding?
“I can eat unlimited fruit.”
“I should avoid all carbohydrates.”
“I will eat small, frequent meals.”
“I don’t need to check my blood sugar.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels.
Carbohydrates should be distributed, not eliminated.
A nurse notes a client’s blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg at 32 weeks. Urine
dipstick shows 2+ protein. Which condition is suspected? a) Gestational
hypertension
Chronic hypertension
Preeclampsia
Eclampsia
Answer: c
*Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines
preeclampsia. Eclampsia requires seizures.*
A pregnant woman reports leg pain and swelling in one calf. What is the priority
action? a) Massage the calf
Do not massage; order a Doppler ultrasound
Apply warm compresses
Encourage ambulation
Answer: b
Rationale: Unilateral calf pain/swelling suggests deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Massage could dislodge a clot, causing pulmonary embolism.
A client at 28 weeks asks about the kick count. What is normal?
At least 5 kicks per hour
At least 15 kicks per 12 hours
At least 10 kicks per 2 hours
Any movement is fine
Answer: c
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
recommends at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Fewer warrants evaluation.
, Which immunization is safe to give during pregnancy?
MMR
Varicella
Tdap
HPV
Answer: c
Rationale:
Tdap
(tetanus,
diphtheria,
pertussis) is
recommende
d between
27–36 weeks
to pass
antibodies
to the fetus.
Others are
live
vaccines.
A nurse explains chloasma to a primigravida. Which statement is correct?
“It is a sign of liver disease.”
“It is a darkening of facial skin due to hormones.”
“It will never go away.”
“It requires immediate treatment.”
Answer: b
Rationale: Chloasma (mask of pregnancy) is benign hyperpigmentation caused
by estrogen and progesterone. It often fades postpartum.
A client asks about taking ibuprofen for headaches at 30 weeks. What is the best
response?
“It is safe at any gestation.”
“Avoid ibuprofen; it can cause fetal renal issues and premature ductal closure.”
“Use a double dose for migraines.”
“Only take it in the third trimester.”
Answer: b
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen are avoided after 30 weeks due to risk of
premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.
