Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Practicum
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Practicum Final
Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family
Practicum | University-Level Advanced Practice Nursing Students
150 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Academic Year 2026/2027
Prepared by
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family
Practicum
Final Comprehensive Examination Actual Exam | Academic Year 2026/2027
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
,Introduction
This examination contains 150 original Verified Questions organized into four core domains that follow
the official blueprint of the Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Practicum course: Domain 1, Prenatal and Antepartum Care, with 38 questions;
Domain 2, Intrapartum and Postpartum Care, with 38 questions; Domain 3, Newborn and Infant Care,
with 37 questions; and Domain 4, Toddler, Child, and Adolescent Health, with 37 questions. Every
question is accompanied by four choices, the correct response, and a rationale that explains the clinical
reasoning.
All content in this document is original and has been written to reinforce the official Chamberlain College
of Nursing NR 602 course objectives for the Final Comprehensive Examination, supporting actual exam
readiness and clinical proficiency for University-Level graduate nursing students in the 2026/2027
academic year. The questions and rationales follow the foundational maternal-child primary care
methodology of the NR 602 course materials, Perry's Maternal Child Nursing Care, and Burns' Pediatric
Primary Care, and they align with current evidence-based obstetric, neonatal, and pediatric care
standards. A full answer key and a per-domain score tracker are provided at the end of this document so
that each domain can be checked and used to focus further study.
Actual Questions
Domain 1: Prenatal and Antepartum Care
Question 1. A woman's last menstrual period began on May 20. Using Naegele's rule, what
is her estimated due date?
A. February 27 of the following year
B. February 13 of the following year
C. March 27 of the following year
D. April 20 of the following year
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated due date by subtracting three months from the first
day of the last menstrual period and adding seven days, which places delivery at 280 days (40 weeks)
from the last menstrual period. This is the standard dating method taught in the NR 602 course
materials and Perry's Maternal Child Nursing Care. May 20 minus three months is February 20;
adding seven days yields February 27.
Question 2. At a 30-week prenatal visit, the fundal height measures 25 cm and the fetal
heart rate is reassuring. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the woman that the measurement is within normal limits
B. Order an ultrasound to assess fetal growth
C. Repeat the measurement at the next scheduled visit in four weeks
D. Initiate corticosteroid therapy for fetal lung maturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Between 20 and 36 weeks, fundal height in centimeters approximates gestational age within
2 cm. A measurement 3 cm or more below the expected value raises concern for fetal growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or incorrect dating, so a growth ultrasound is the correct next step. Addressing a 5 cm
discrepancy as normal or waiting four weeks would delay the detection of growth restriction, a core
antepartum assessment goal in the NR 602 curriculum.
Question 3. During which gestational interval is the nuchal translucency measurement
obtained for first-trimester aneuploidy screening?
A. 11 0/7 to 13 6/7 weeks
B. 8 0/7 to 10 6/7 weeks
C. 14 0/7 to 16 6/7 weeks
D. 18 0/7 to 20 6/7 weeks
Correct Answer: A
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
,Rationale: Nuchal translucency sonography is performed between 11 0/7 and 13 6/7 weeks, when the
fetal crown-rump length is 45 to 84 mm. Measurement outside this window cannot be interpreted
reliably, because the translucency normally resolves by the end of the first trimester. This timing rule is
specified in ACOG guidance and emphasized in the NR 602 prenatal screening sequence.
Question 4. A quadruple screen at 16 weeks reports an elevated maternal serum alpha-
fetoprotein level. Which fetal condition is most strongly associated with this result?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner syndrome
C. An open neural tube defect
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein rises when fetal blood or cerebrospinal fluid leaks into the
amniotic fluid, so elevated levels are classically associated with open neural tube defects such as spina
bifida. Elevated levels also occur with abdominal wall defects and multiple gestation. In contrast,
trisomy 21 is associated with low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein along with elevated hCG and
inhibin A, so the low-result pattern, not the elevated pattern, points to trisomy 21.
Question 5. For an Rh-negative, unsensitized pregnant woman with an uncomplicated
pregnancy, when is routine antepartum anti-D immune globulin administered?
A. At 12 weeks' gestation
B. At 20 weeks' gestation
C. At 36 weeks' gestation
D. At 28 weeks' gestation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Standard antepartum Rh prophylaxis is a 300 mcg dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28
weeks, because fetomaternal hemorrhage large enough to sensitize the mother is most likely to occur in
the third trimester. A dose is repeated within 72 hours after birth when the newborn is Rh positive. This
schedule prevents sensitization, which would otherwise complicate future pregnancies with hemolytic
disease of the newborn.
Question 6. A gestational diabetes screen with 50 g oral glucose at 28 weeks yields a 1-hour
value of 158 mg/dL. What is the next step?
A. A diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus based on this single value
B. A 3-hour, 100 g oral glucose tolerance assessment
C. Repeat the 50 g screen in one week
D. Immediate initiation of insulin therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 50 g screen is a screening measure, not a diagnostic one. A 1-hour value of 140 mg/dL or
higher is a positive screen that triggers a diagnostic 3-hour, 100 g oral glucose tolerance assessment.
Gestational diabetes is diagnosed when at least two of the four timed values meet or exceed the
thresholds, and management is individualized. This two-step sequence mirrors the ACOG screening
framework used in the NR 602 course materials.
Question 7. What is the recommended daily elemental iron intake during pregnancy to
prevent iron deficiency anemia?
A. 8 mg
B. 18 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 27 mg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The recommended dietary allowance for elemental iron in pregnancy is 27 mg daily,
increased from 18 mg in nonpregnant women, to support the expanded maternal red cell mass and fetal
iron stores. Maternal iron stores are depleted by hemodilution and fetal demand, so supplementation at
this dose is standard. The 8 mg value corresponds to the adult male allowance, and 60 mg dosing is
reserved for treatment of established iron deficiency.
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
, Question 8. Which supplementation strategy best reduces the risk of a neural tube defect
in a woman planning to conceive?
A. 27 mg iron daily beginning at the first prenatal visit
B. Vitamin B12 2.4 mcg daily beginning at 12 weeks
C. 0.4 mg folic acid daily beginning before conception
D. 0.4 mg folic acid daily beginning at 12 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neural tube defects close during the first four weeks of embryonic development, often before
a woman knows she is pregnant, so folic acid must be started at least one month before conception and
continued through the first trimester. Daily doses of 0.4 mg are recommended for average-risk women,
and higher doses such as 4 mg are used for women with a prior affected pregnancy. Beginning
supplementation at 12 weeks, when the neural tube is already closed, provides no preventive benefit.
Question 9. In a woman with prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum and recurrent vomiting,
deficiency of which vitamin is of greatest concern?
A. Thiamine (vitamin B1), risking Wernicke encephalopathy
B. Vitamin B12, risking megaloblastic anemia
C. Vitamin K, risking fetal hemorrhage
D. Vitamin C, risking impaired wound healing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged vomiting depletes thiamine stores within a few weeks, and administering glucose
without thiamine replacement can precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy, an acute neurologic
emergency. The NR 602 and Perry's curriculum emphasize giving thiamine before glucose-containing
fluids in hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B12 deficiency takes months to develop; the acute risk in
persistent vomiting is thiamine depletion, with metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia from chloride and
potassium losses.
Question 10. A woman with a prepregnancy body mass index of 22 begins prenatal care at
10 weeks. What total gestational weight gain is recommended for her?
A. 12.5 to 18 kg (28 to 40 lb)
B. 11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb)
C. 7 to 11.5 kg (15 to 25 lb)
D. 5 to 9 kg (11 to 20 lb)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Institute of Medicine weight-gain targets are based on prepregnancy body mass index. For a
normal-weight woman, 11.5 to 16 kg is recommended; underweight women gain 12.5 to 18 kg,
overweight women 7 to 11.5 kg, and obese women 5 to 9 kg. Counseling on these ranges at the initial
visit supports appropriate fetal growth and reduces the risks of macrosomia, cesarean delivery, and
postpartum weight retention.
Question 11. At what gestational age are fetal heart tones typically first detected with a
handheld Doppler device?
A. 6 to 8 weeks
B. 16 to 18 weeks
C. 10 to 12 weeks
D. 20 to 22 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A handheld Doppler detects fetal heart tones at about 10 to 12 weeks, whereas a fetoscope
generally does not detect them until 18 to 20 weeks. The inability to hear fetal heart tones with a
Doppler before 12 weeks is expected. Confirming a fetal heart beat with the Doppler at the 12-week visit
is a standard milestone in the antepartum assessment sequence taught in NR 602 and Perry's Maternal
Child Nursing Care.
Question 12. Which instruction for daily fetal movement counting is correct?
A. Count 10 movements during the 10 minutes after each meal
B. Count 10 distinct fetal movements within a 2-hour period and report fewer than 10
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
Childrearing Family Practicum
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Practicum Final
Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family
Practicum | University-Level Advanced Practice Nursing Students
150 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Academic Year 2026/2027
Prepared by
Chamberlain College of Nursing | NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family
Practicum
Final Comprehensive Examination Actual Exam | Academic Year 2026/2027
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
,Introduction
This examination contains 150 original Verified Questions organized into four core domains that follow
the official blueprint of the Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family Practicum course: Domain 1, Prenatal and Antepartum Care, with 38 questions;
Domain 2, Intrapartum and Postpartum Care, with 38 questions; Domain 3, Newborn and Infant Care,
with 37 questions; and Domain 4, Toddler, Child, and Adolescent Health, with 37 questions. Every
question is accompanied by four choices, the correct response, and a rationale that explains the clinical
reasoning.
All content in this document is original and has been written to reinforce the official Chamberlain College
of Nursing NR 602 course objectives for the Final Comprehensive Examination, supporting actual exam
readiness and clinical proficiency for University-Level graduate nursing students in the 2026/2027
academic year. The questions and rationales follow the foundational maternal-child primary care
methodology of the NR 602 course materials, Perry's Maternal Child Nursing Care, and Burns' Pediatric
Primary Care, and they align with current evidence-based obstetric, neonatal, and pediatric care
standards. A full answer key and a per-domain score tracker are provided at the end of this document so
that each domain can be checked and used to focus further study.
Actual Questions
Domain 1: Prenatal and Antepartum Care
Question 1. A woman's last menstrual period began on May 20. Using Naegele's rule, what
is her estimated due date?
A. February 27 of the following year
B. February 13 of the following year
C. March 27 of the following year
D. April 20 of the following year
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated due date by subtracting three months from the first
day of the last menstrual period and adding seven days, which places delivery at 280 days (40 weeks)
from the last menstrual period. This is the standard dating method taught in the NR 602 course
materials and Perry's Maternal Child Nursing Care. May 20 minus three months is February 20;
adding seven days yields February 27.
Question 2. At a 30-week prenatal visit, the fundal height measures 25 cm and the fetal
heart rate is reassuring. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the woman that the measurement is within normal limits
B. Order an ultrasound to assess fetal growth
C. Repeat the measurement at the next scheduled visit in four weeks
D. Initiate corticosteroid therapy for fetal lung maturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Between 20 and 36 weeks, fundal height in centimeters approximates gestational age within
2 cm. A measurement 3 cm or more below the expected value raises concern for fetal growth restriction,
oligohydramnios, or incorrect dating, so a growth ultrasound is the correct next step. Addressing a 5 cm
discrepancy as normal or waiting four weeks would delay the detection of growth restriction, a core
antepartum assessment goal in the NR 602 curriculum.
Question 3. During which gestational interval is the nuchal translucency measurement
obtained for first-trimester aneuploidy screening?
A. 11 0/7 to 13 6/7 weeks
B. 8 0/7 to 10 6/7 weeks
C. 14 0/7 to 16 6/7 weeks
D. 18 0/7 to 20 6/7 weeks
Correct Answer: A
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
,Rationale: Nuchal translucency sonography is performed between 11 0/7 and 13 6/7 weeks, when the
fetal crown-rump length is 45 to 84 mm. Measurement outside this window cannot be interpreted
reliably, because the translucency normally resolves by the end of the first trimester. This timing rule is
specified in ACOG guidance and emphasized in the NR 602 prenatal screening sequence.
Question 4. A quadruple screen at 16 weeks reports an elevated maternal serum alpha-
fetoprotein level. Which fetal condition is most strongly associated with this result?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner syndrome
C. An open neural tube defect
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein rises when fetal blood or cerebrospinal fluid leaks into the
amniotic fluid, so elevated levels are classically associated with open neural tube defects such as spina
bifida. Elevated levels also occur with abdominal wall defects and multiple gestation. In contrast,
trisomy 21 is associated with low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein along with elevated hCG and
inhibin A, so the low-result pattern, not the elevated pattern, points to trisomy 21.
Question 5. For an Rh-negative, unsensitized pregnant woman with an uncomplicated
pregnancy, when is routine antepartum anti-D immune globulin administered?
A. At 12 weeks' gestation
B. At 20 weeks' gestation
C. At 36 weeks' gestation
D. At 28 weeks' gestation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Standard antepartum Rh prophylaxis is a 300 mcg dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28
weeks, because fetomaternal hemorrhage large enough to sensitize the mother is most likely to occur in
the third trimester. A dose is repeated within 72 hours after birth when the newborn is Rh positive. This
schedule prevents sensitization, which would otherwise complicate future pregnancies with hemolytic
disease of the newborn.
Question 6. A gestational diabetes screen with 50 g oral glucose at 28 weeks yields a 1-hour
value of 158 mg/dL. What is the next step?
A. A diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus based on this single value
B. A 3-hour, 100 g oral glucose tolerance assessment
C. Repeat the 50 g screen in one week
D. Immediate initiation of insulin therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 50 g screen is a screening measure, not a diagnostic one. A 1-hour value of 140 mg/dL or
higher is a positive screen that triggers a diagnostic 3-hour, 100 g oral glucose tolerance assessment.
Gestational diabetes is diagnosed when at least two of the four timed values meet or exceed the
thresholds, and management is individualized. This two-step sequence mirrors the ACOG screening
framework used in the NR 602 course materials.
Question 7. What is the recommended daily elemental iron intake during pregnancy to
prevent iron deficiency anemia?
A. 8 mg
B. 18 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 27 mg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The recommended dietary allowance for elemental iron in pregnancy is 27 mg daily,
increased from 18 mg in nonpregnant women, to support the expanded maternal red cell mass and fetal
iron stores. Maternal iron stores are depleted by hemodilution and fetal demand, so supplementation at
this dose is standard. The 8 mg value corresponds to the adult male allowance, and 60 mg dosing is
reserved for treatment of established iron deficiency.
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
, Question 8. Which supplementation strategy best reduces the risk of a neural tube defect
in a woman planning to conceive?
A. 27 mg iron daily beginning at the first prenatal visit
B. Vitamin B12 2.4 mcg daily beginning at 12 weeks
C. 0.4 mg folic acid daily beginning before conception
D. 0.4 mg folic acid daily beginning at 12 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neural tube defects close during the first four weeks of embryonic development, often before
a woman knows she is pregnant, so folic acid must be started at least one month before conception and
continued through the first trimester. Daily doses of 0.4 mg are recommended for average-risk women,
and higher doses such as 4 mg are used for women with a prior affected pregnancy. Beginning
supplementation at 12 weeks, when the neural tube is already closed, provides no preventive benefit.
Question 9. In a woman with prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum and recurrent vomiting,
deficiency of which vitamin is of greatest concern?
A. Thiamine (vitamin B1), risking Wernicke encephalopathy
B. Vitamin B12, risking megaloblastic anemia
C. Vitamin K, risking fetal hemorrhage
D. Vitamin C, risking impaired wound healing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prolonged vomiting depletes thiamine stores within a few weeks, and administering glucose
without thiamine replacement can precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy, an acute neurologic
emergency. The NR 602 and Perry's curriculum emphasize giving thiamine before glucose-containing
fluids in hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B12 deficiency takes months to develop; the acute risk in
persistent vomiting is thiamine depletion, with metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia from chloride and
potassium losses.
Question 10. A woman with a prepregnancy body mass index of 22 begins prenatal care at
10 weeks. What total gestational weight gain is recommended for her?
A. 12.5 to 18 kg (28 to 40 lb)
B. 11.5 to 16 kg (25 to 35 lb)
C. 7 to 11.5 kg (15 to 25 lb)
D. 5 to 9 kg (11 to 20 lb)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Institute of Medicine weight-gain targets are based on prepregnancy body mass index. For a
normal-weight woman, 11.5 to 16 kg is recommended; underweight women gain 12.5 to 18 kg,
overweight women 7 to 11.5 kg, and obese women 5 to 9 kg. Counseling on these ranges at the initial
visit supports appropriate fetal growth and reduces the risks of macrosomia, cesarean delivery, and
postpartum weight retention.
Question 11. At what gestational age are fetal heart tones typically first detected with a
handheld Doppler device?
A. 6 to 8 weeks
B. 16 to 18 weeks
C. 10 to 12 weeks
D. 20 to 22 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A handheld Doppler detects fetal heart tones at about 10 to 12 weeks, whereas a fetoscope
generally does not detect them until 18 to 20 weeks. The inability to hear fetal heart tones with a
Doppler before 12 weeks is expected. Confirming a fetal heart beat with the Doppler at the 12-week visit
is a standard milestone in the antepartum assessment sequence taught in NR 602 and Perry's Maternal
Child Nursing Care.
Question 12. Which instruction for daily fetal movement counting is correct?
A. Count 10 movements during the 10 minutes after each meal
B. Count 10 distinct fetal movements within a 2-hour period and report fewer than 10
NR 602 Primary Care of the Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum Final Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
