NR605 DIAGNOSIS & MANAGEMENT IN
PSYCHIATRIC-MENTAL HEALTH
PRACTICUM REVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. Which neurobiological pathway is primarily associated with the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions?
A. Mesocortical pathway
B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesolimbic pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The mesolimbic pathway involves the projection of dopamine
from the ventral tegmental area to the nucleus accumbens; hyperactivity in this pathway is
linked to positive symptoms.
,2. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar I Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely blood level of Lithium?
A. > 2.0 mEq/L
B. 1.0 - 1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5 - 2.0 mEq/L
D. 0.6 - 0.8 mEq/L
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Severe lithium toxicity (levels > 2.0 mEq/L) is characterized by
neurological signs like ataxia, coarse tremors, and altered consciousness.
3. According to the DSM-5-TR, what is the minimum duration of symptoms required to
diagnose a Major Depressive Episode?
A. 2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 month
D. 2 months
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A Major Depressive Episode requires at least five symptoms to
be present during the same 2-week period, representing a change from previous
functioning.
, 4. Which medication is considered the gold standard for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
but requires rigorous monitoring for agranulocytosis?
A. Clozapine
B. Risperidone
C. Quetiapine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic for treatment-
resistant cases but carries a risk of life-threatening agranulocytosis, requiring regular ANC
monitoring.
5. A 10-year-old child presents with persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper
outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
PSYCHIATRIC-MENTAL HEALTH
PRACTICUM REVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. Which neurobiological pathway is primarily associated with the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions?
A. Mesocortical pathway
B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesolimbic pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The mesolimbic pathway involves the projection of dopamine
from the ventral tegmental area to the nucleus accumbens; hyperactivity in this pathway is
linked to positive symptoms.
,2. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar I Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely blood level of Lithium?
A. > 2.0 mEq/L
B. 1.0 - 1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5 - 2.0 mEq/L
D. 0.6 - 0.8 mEq/L
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Severe lithium toxicity (levels > 2.0 mEq/L) is characterized by
neurological signs like ataxia, coarse tremors, and altered consciousness.
3. According to the DSM-5-TR, what is the minimum duration of symptoms required to
diagnose a Major Depressive Episode?
A. 2 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 1 month
D. 2 months
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: A Major Depressive Episode requires at least five symptoms to
be present during the same 2-week period, representing a change from previous
functioning.
, 4. Which medication is considered the gold standard for treatment-resistant schizophrenia
but requires rigorous monitoring for agranulocytosis?
A. Clozapine
B. Risperidone
C. Quetiapine
D. Olanzapine
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic for treatment-
resistant cases but carries a risk of life-threatening agranulocytosis, requiring regular ANC
monitoring.
5. A 10-year-old child presents with persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper
outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
