Sentinel U APS Adult Typical – Neveah Green
Patient Encounter | Complete Activity Report &
Answers | 100% Score | NKU Primary Care
\Sentinel U APS Adult Typical – Neveah Green
Patient Encounter | Practice Exam
Based on the search results and the typical structure of the Sentinel U Advanced Practice
Series (APS) simulations from Northern Kentucky University (NKU) Primary Care, here is
a practice exam for the Neveah Green patient encounter.
Since a full, verified Neveah Green activity report is not available in the search results,
this practice exam is constructed using the most relevant question and answer patterns
from similar APS simulations, including the Adult Wellness (Kai
Tailfeather) and Adult Complex (Awan Howell) encounters. The questions are
organized to match the format of a complete activity report and align with the primary
care nursing curriculum.
Section A: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Question 1:
A 28-year-old female patient reports irregular menses and hirsutism. She has a BMI of
32. Which laboratory finding would be most consistent with a diagnosis of Polycystic
Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
A. Elevated FSH and normal LH
B. Elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated total testosterone
C. Decreased estrogen and elevated progesterone
D. Normal DHEA-S and elevated TSH
Answer: B. Elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated total testosterone
PCOS is characterized by an elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated androgens, such as total
,testosterone. These findings, along with clinical signs like hirsutism and irregular menses,
support the diagnosis.
Question 2:
When assessing a patient for potential Type 2 diabetes risk, which finding from the
Diabetes Prevention Program is most evidence-based for reducing incidence?
A. A Mediterranean diet
B. 150 minutes of aerobic exercise per week
C. A 7% weight loss with lifestyle intervention
D. Metformin therapy
Answer: C. A 7% weight loss with lifestyle intervention
The Diabetes Prevention Program demonstrated that a 7% weight loss combined with
lifestyle changes reduced the incidence of diabetes by 58%, making it the most impactful
evidence-based intervention .
Section B: Psychosocial Integrity
Question 3:
A 22-year-old college student presents with anxiety, difficulty sleeping, and reports
feeling "stressed all the time." Which screening tool is appropriate for initial assessment
in a primary care setting?
A. AUDIT-C
B. PHQ-9
C. GAD-7
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C. GAD-7
The GAD-7 is a validated, 7-item screening tool specifically designed to assess the severity
of generalized anxiety disorder in primary care and is appropriate for this patient's
presentation.
,Question 4:
The PHQ-9 is used to screen for which condition?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Bipolar Disorder
D. Substance Use Disorder
Answer: B. Major Depressive Disorder
The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a 9-item depression scale that screens for
the presence and severity of depression .
Section C: Clinical Reasoning and Assessment
Question 5:
During a primary care encounter, which documentation practice best supports
continuity of care and reduces the risk of diagnostic error?
A. Using copy-forward to maintain a consistent problem list
B. Documenting only diagnoses actively managed during the visit
C. Including a 'pertinent negatives' section for key symptoms not present
D. Recording the patient's narrative verbatim
Answer: C. Including a 'pertinent negatives' section for key symptoms not present
Documenting pertinent negatives clarifies the diagnostic reasoning, helps future providers
avoid unnecessary testing, and reduces the risk of misdiagnosis .
Question 6:
Which finding in EHR medication reconciliation would be considered a clinically
significant drug-drug interaction requiring provider notification?
A. Warfarin and acetaminophen PRN
B. Simvastatin and amiodarone
C. Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metformin and sitagliptin
, Answer: B. Simvastatin and amiodarone
Simvastatin combined with amiodarone increases the risk of myopathy and
rhabdomyolysis; the simvastatin dose should not exceed 20 mg/day. The other
combinations are considered generally safe .
Section D: Evaluation of Treatment Plans
Question 7:
A patient with a new prescription for an ACE inhibitor returns with a serum potassium of
5.6 mEq/L and reports a persistent dry cough. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Reassure the patient and continue the medication
B. Add a potassium supplement
C. Notify the provider of potential adverse drug reaction
D. Switch the patient to a potassium-rich diet
Answer: C. Notify the provider of potential adverse drug reaction
Hyperkalemia (potassium >5.0 mEq/L) and a dry cough are classic adverse effects of ACE
inhibitors and require provider notification for potential medication adjustment .
Question 8:
A patient's BMI is calculated as 32. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention classification, this falls into which category?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Class I Obesity
D. Class II Obesity
Answer: C. Class I Obesity
Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or greater, and is further subdivided into Class I (30-
34.9), Class II (35-39.9), and Class III (40 or greater) .
Patient Encounter | Complete Activity Report &
Answers | 100% Score | NKU Primary Care
\Sentinel U APS Adult Typical – Neveah Green
Patient Encounter | Practice Exam
Based on the search results and the typical structure of the Sentinel U Advanced Practice
Series (APS) simulations from Northern Kentucky University (NKU) Primary Care, here is
a practice exam for the Neveah Green patient encounter.
Since a full, verified Neveah Green activity report is not available in the search results,
this practice exam is constructed using the most relevant question and answer patterns
from similar APS simulations, including the Adult Wellness (Kai
Tailfeather) and Adult Complex (Awan Howell) encounters. The questions are
organized to match the format of a complete activity report and align with the primary
care nursing curriculum.
Section A: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Question 1:
A 28-year-old female patient reports irregular menses and hirsutism. She has a BMI of
32. Which laboratory finding would be most consistent with a diagnosis of Polycystic
Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
A. Elevated FSH and normal LH
B. Elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated total testosterone
C. Decreased estrogen and elevated progesterone
D. Normal DHEA-S and elevated TSH
Answer: B. Elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated total testosterone
PCOS is characterized by an elevated LH/FSH ratio and elevated androgens, such as total
,testosterone. These findings, along with clinical signs like hirsutism and irregular menses,
support the diagnosis.
Question 2:
When assessing a patient for potential Type 2 diabetes risk, which finding from the
Diabetes Prevention Program is most evidence-based for reducing incidence?
A. A Mediterranean diet
B. 150 minutes of aerobic exercise per week
C. A 7% weight loss with lifestyle intervention
D. Metformin therapy
Answer: C. A 7% weight loss with lifestyle intervention
The Diabetes Prevention Program demonstrated that a 7% weight loss combined with
lifestyle changes reduced the incidence of diabetes by 58%, making it the most impactful
evidence-based intervention .
Section B: Psychosocial Integrity
Question 3:
A 22-year-old college student presents with anxiety, difficulty sleeping, and reports
feeling "stressed all the time." Which screening tool is appropriate for initial assessment
in a primary care setting?
A. AUDIT-C
B. PHQ-9
C. GAD-7
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C. GAD-7
The GAD-7 is a validated, 7-item screening tool specifically designed to assess the severity
of generalized anxiety disorder in primary care and is appropriate for this patient's
presentation.
,Question 4:
The PHQ-9 is used to screen for which condition?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Bipolar Disorder
D. Substance Use Disorder
Answer: B. Major Depressive Disorder
The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a 9-item depression scale that screens for
the presence and severity of depression .
Section C: Clinical Reasoning and Assessment
Question 5:
During a primary care encounter, which documentation practice best supports
continuity of care and reduces the risk of diagnostic error?
A. Using copy-forward to maintain a consistent problem list
B. Documenting only diagnoses actively managed during the visit
C. Including a 'pertinent negatives' section for key symptoms not present
D. Recording the patient's narrative verbatim
Answer: C. Including a 'pertinent negatives' section for key symptoms not present
Documenting pertinent negatives clarifies the diagnostic reasoning, helps future providers
avoid unnecessary testing, and reduces the risk of misdiagnosis .
Question 6:
Which finding in EHR medication reconciliation would be considered a clinically
significant drug-drug interaction requiring provider notification?
A. Warfarin and acetaminophen PRN
B. Simvastatin and amiodarone
C. Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metformin and sitagliptin
, Answer: B. Simvastatin and amiodarone
Simvastatin combined with amiodarone increases the risk of myopathy and
rhabdomyolysis; the simvastatin dose should not exceed 20 mg/day. The other
combinations are considered generally safe .
Section D: Evaluation of Treatment Plans
Question 7:
A patient with a new prescription for an ACE inhibitor returns with a serum potassium of
5.6 mEq/L and reports a persistent dry cough. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Reassure the patient and continue the medication
B. Add a potassium supplement
C. Notify the provider of potential adverse drug reaction
D. Switch the patient to a potassium-rich diet
Answer: C. Notify the provider of potential adverse drug reaction
Hyperkalemia (potassium >5.0 mEq/L) and a dry cough are classic adverse effects of ACE
inhibitors and require provider notification for potential medication adjustment .
Question 8:
A patient's BMI is calculated as 32. According to the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention classification, this falls into which category?
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Class I Obesity
D. Class II Obesity
Answer: C. Class I Obesity
Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or greater, and is further subdivided into Class I (30-
34.9), Class II (35-39.9), and Class III (40 or greater) .
