NR 607 FINAL EXAM – DIAGNOSIS & MANAGEMENT IN
PMH III PRACTICUM 100 LATEST QUESTIONS &
CORRECT ANSWERS STUDY GUIDE (2026)
CHAMBERLAIN
1. Which risk category in the AEIO framework is assigned when a client
with active hallucinations possesses a lighter and a pocketknife?
A) Objects-high risk
B) Environment-low risk
C) Intent-moderate risk
D) Agitation-high risk
Correct Answer: A) Objects-high risk
Rationale: The AEIO framework evaluates Agitation, Environment, Intent,
and Objects. Possession of a lighter and pocketknife during active
hallucinations is an object-related safety concern because these items
can be used as weapons. This is classified as Objects-high risk.
2. The spouse of a patient with mild Alzheimer disease asks how
donepezil works. Which response is correct?
A) It blocks dopamine receptors
B) It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine
C) It reverses beta-amyloid plaques
D) It increases serotonin levels
Correct Answer: B) It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine
,Rationale: Donepezil is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. It prevents
acetylcholine breakdown, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.
This may temporarily improve or stabilize cognition in mild to moderate
Alzheimer disease but does not cure the disease.
3. A client taking clozapine develops fever, sore throat, and mouth ulcers.
What is the priority action after stabilization?
A) Obtain a serum drug level
B) Start an antibiotic
C) Discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete blood count
D) Increase clozapine
Correct Answer: C) Discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete blood count
Rationale: Fever, sore throat, and mouth ulcers in a client taking clozapine
suggest agranulocytosis. Clozapine carries a black box warning for
neutropenia. The priority is to discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete
blood count to assess neutrophil count.
4. A 6-year-old child frequently leaves his bed, sleeps only with parents,
and has nightmares about losing them in a crowd. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Nightmare disorder
B) Insomnia disorder
C) Specific phobia
D) Separation anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: D) Separation anxiety disorder
,Rationale: The child shows excessive distress around separation, difficulty
sleeping alone, fear of being away from caregivers, and separation-themed
nightmares. These are core features of separation anxiety disorder, not a
primary sleep disorder or specific phobia.
5. Which complementary therapy has evidence for reducing trauma-
related anxiety, depression, and PTSD symptoms?
A) Acupuncture
B) Megavitamin therapy
C) Chelation therapy
D) Floatation only
Correct Answer: A) Acupuncture
Rationale: Acupuncture is an evidence-based complementary and
alternative medicine treatment for trauma-related symptoms. It has shown
benefit for anxiety, depression, and PTSD. Other trauma-informed CAM
approaches include mindfulness, yoga, and relaxation techniques.
6. A client with alcohol use disorder is shaky, combative, and delirious
in the emergency department. What is the most likely medical cause?
A) Uremia
B) Alcohol withdrawal
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypoxia
, Correct Answer: B) Alcohol withdrawal
Rationale: Delirium, shakiness, and combativeness in a patient with known
alcohol use disorder strongly suggest alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal can
cause autonomic instability, agitation, and delirium. Benzodiazepines are
first-line treatment.
7. Which screening tool is used to identify bipolar disorder before
starting an antidepressant?
A) PHQ-9
B) GAD-7
C) Mood Disorder Questionnaire
D) CAGE-AID
Correct Answer: C) Mood Disorder Questionnaire
Rationale: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire screens for past manic or
hypomanic symptoms. It should be used before starting
antidepressants to reduce the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.
PHQ-9 screens depression, GAD-7 anxiety, and CAGE-AID substance
use.
8. A client with treatment-resistant depression is being considered
for adjunctive therapy. Which medication is approved for this
indication?
A) Sertraline
B) Fluoxetine
C) Escitalopram
D) Aripiprazole
PMH III PRACTICUM 100 LATEST QUESTIONS &
CORRECT ANSWERS STUDY GUIDE (2026)
CHAMBERLAIN
1. Which risk category in the AEIO framework is assigned when a client
with active hallucinations possesses a lighter and a pocketknife?
A) Objects-high risk
B) Environment-low risk
C) Intent-moderate risk
D) Agitation-high risk
Correct Answer: A) Objects-high risk
Rationale: The AEIO framework evaluates Agitation, Environment, Intent,
and Objects. Possession of a lighter and pocketknife during active
hallucinations is an object-related safety concern because these items
can be used as weapons. This is classified as Objects-high risk.
2. The spouse of a patient with mild Alzheimer disease asks how
donepezil works. Which response is correct?
A) It blocks dopamine receptors
B) It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine
C) It reverses beta-amyloid plaques
D) It increases serotonin levels
Correct Answer: B) It prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine
,Rationale: Donepezil is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. It prevents
acetylcholine breakdown, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.
This may temporarily improve or stabilize cognition in mild to moderate
Alzheimer disease but does not cure the disease.
3. A client taking clozapine develops fever, sore throat, and mouth ulcers.
What is the priority action after stabilization?
A) Obtain a serum drug level
B) Start an antibiotic
C) Discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete blood count
D) Increase clozapine
Correct Answer: C) Discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete blood count
Rationale: Fever, sore throat, and mouth ulcers in a client taking clozapine
suggest agranulocytosis. Clozapine carries a black box warning for
neutropenia. The priority is to discontinue clozapine and obtain a complete
blood count to assess neutrophil count.
4. A 6-year-old child frequently leaves his bed, sleeps only with parents,
and has nightmares about losing them in a crowd. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Nightmare disorder
B) Insomnia disorder
C) Specific phobia
D) Separation anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: D) Separation anxiety disorder
,Rationale: The child shows excessive distress around separation, difficulty
sleeping alone, fear of being away from caregivers, and separation-themed
nightmares. These are core features of separation anxiety disorder, not a
primary sleep disorder or specific phobia.
5. Which complementary therapy has evidence for reducing trauma-
related anxiety, depression, and PTSD symptoms?
A) Acupuncture
B) Megavitamin therapy
C) Chelation therapy
D) Floatation only
Correct Answer: A) Acupuncture
Rationale: Acupuncture is an evidence-based complementary and
alternative medicine treatment for trauma-related symptoms. It has shown
benefit for anxiety, depression, and PTSD. Other trauma-informed CAM
approaches include mindfulness, yoga, and relaxation techniques.
6. A client with alcohol use disorder is shaky, combative, and delirious
in the emergency department. What is the most likely medical cause?
A) Uremia
B) Alcohol withdrawal
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypoxia
, Correct Answer: B) Alcohol withdrawal
Rationale: Delirium, shakiness, and combativeness in a patient with known
alcohol use disorder strongly suggest alcohol withdrawal. Withdrawal can
cause autonomic instability, agitation, and delirium. Benzodiazepines are
first-line treatment.
7. Which screening tool is used to identify bipolar disorder before
starting an antidepressant?
A) PHQ-9
B) GAD-7
C) Mood Disorder Questionnaire
D) CAGE-AID
Correct Answer: C) Mood Disorder Questionnaire
Rationale: The Mood Disorder Questionnaire screens for past manic or
hypomanic symptoms. It should be used before starting
antidepressants to reduce the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.
PHQ-9 screens depression, GAD-7 anxiety, and CAGE-AID substance
use.
8. A client with treatment-resistant depression is being considered
for adjunctive therapy. Which medication is approved for this
indication?
A) Sertraline
B) Fluoxetine
C) Escitalopram
D) Aripiprazole
