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WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE

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WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE




WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
2026-2027 Updated Exam 100% (VERIFIED ANSWERS) A+ GRADE BRAND NEW




<b>Comprehensive Resource Analysis and Educational Taxonomy</b><br/>This verified study bank is
mapped directly to the core competencies of the <b>WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology Unit 2</b>
curriculum, focusing on genetics, chromosomal abnormalities, immunology, acute and chronic inflammation,
hypersensitivity reactions, pathogenicity, fungal/viral infections, oncological risk factors, and health literacy
frameworks. By analyzing the structural elements and clinical procedures within the course materials, this test
bank transforms complex pathophysiology into highly functional, student-friendly practice questions. It spans
the entire unit's curriculum with 60 high-quality, original multiple-choice questions, each complete with exact
verified answers and robust, dual-sided explanations detailing the underlying clinical and genetic science as
well as why distractor options are incorrect under federal board and university exam standards.


COURSE METADATA & STUDY OUTLINE
• Subject Area: Advanced Pathophysiology (Unit 2 Genetics, Immunology, & Inflammation)
• Thematic Chapters: Chapter 1: Genetics & Chromosomal Abnormalities; Chapter 2: Host Defense &
Immunology; Chapter 3: Inflammation, Wound Healing, & Pathogenicity; Chapter 4: Hypersensitivities,
Infections, & Environmental Oncological Risks; Chapter 5: Healthcare Literacy & Treatment Compliance.
• Total Questions: 60 Comprehensive High-Yield Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)
• Primary Focus: Epigenetics, X-linked inheritance, cellular immune cascades, hypersensitivity pathways
(Type I & II), fungal mycoses taxonomy, UV-induced carcinogenesis, and National Health Literacy
benchmarks.




WGU D115 UNIT 2 PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS




WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY - UNIT 2 EXAM
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,WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE



TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 1:</b> Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than
females?
A. Sex-linked recessive
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Sex-linked dominant
ANSWER ■: A. Sex-linked recessive
Explanation: Males only have one X and one Y chromosome (hemizygous). If a male inherits a mutated X
chromosome carrying a sex-linked recessive disorder, there is no second X chromosome to mask the mutation,
resulting in clinical expression of the disease. Females, having two X chromosomes, must inherit two mutated copies
to express the disease, or be carriers if they inherit only one.




TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 2:</b> How can an X-linked recessive disease characteristically skip generations
within a family pedigree?
A. Mothers cannot pass X-linked genes directly to their sons, leaving them unaffected.
B. Females are hemizygous for the X chromosome, meaning they can silence the gene through imprinting.
C. The disease can be transmitted silently through female carriers who do not exhibit clinical symptoms.
D. These diseases require only a single copy of the mutated gene in females to be fully suppressed.
ANSWER ■: C. The disease can be transmitted silently through female carriers who do not exhibit
clinical symptoms.
Explanation: Because females possess two X chromosomes, a mother can pass her affected X chromosome to a
daughter, who will remain an unaffected carrier because she inherits a normal, dominant X chromosome from her
father. The mutated gene can therefore be passed down silently through generations of females without expressing
clinically until it is inherited by a male offspring.




WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY - UNIT 2 EXAM
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,WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE



TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 3:</b> In which two clinical conditions are chromosomal abnormalities
established as the leading known cause?
A. Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
B. Respiratory disorders and cardiovascular disease
C. Adult-onset mental illness and respiratory distress
D. Cardiovascular disease and juvenile metabolic syndrome
ANSWER ■: A. Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage
Explanation: Chromosomal abnormalities, which involve deviations in chromosome number or structure, are the
single leading known clinical causes of intellectual disability and spontaneous fetal miscarriage. Disruptions in genetic
dosage during embryogenesis typically lead to non-viable pregnancies or significant neurodevelopmental deficits.




TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 4:</b> Which genetic disorder is characterized by a DNA deletion on the short
arm of chromosome 5 and clinically presents with microcephaly, low birth weight, and a
highly distinctive, piercing cry in infancy?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Cri du chat syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
ANSWER ■: C. Cri du chat syndrome
Explanation: Cri du chat syndrome (translated from French as 'cry of the cat') is caused by a structural DNA deletion
on the short arm of chromosome 5. Clinical manifestations include low birth weight, microcephaly, severe intellectual
disability, and a characteristic high-pitched, piercing cry that resembles a cat crying, caused by abnormal laryngeal
development.




WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY - UNIT 2 EXAM
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, WGU D115 UNIT 2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PATHOPHYSIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE



TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 5:</b> Which prenatal diagnostic study involves evaluating the genetic
properties of the amniotic fluid and is typically performed during the second trimester
between weeks 15 and 20 of gestation?
A. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
B. Amniocentesis
C. Preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)
D. Microscopy of cervical mucosa
ANSWER ■: B. Amniocentesis
Explanation: Amniocentesis is an invasive prenatal genetic study that harvests and evaluates amniotic fluid
containing fetal cells. It is performed in the second trimester, usually between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. CVS is
performed earlier (weeks 11 to 14) on chorionic villi, and PGT is performed in vitro on embryos prior to uterine
implantation.




TOPIC: GENETICS & CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS


<b>Question 6:</b> Between which gestational weeks is chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
typically performed to acquire prenatal genetic information in utero?
A. Weeks 6 to 9 of pregnancy
B. Weeks 11 to 14 of pregnancy
C. Weeks 15 to 20 of pregnancy
D. Weeks 22 to 25 of pregnancy
ANSWER ■: B. Weeks 11 to 14 of pregnancy
Explanation: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is an in utero genetic screening procedure typically performed during
the late first trimester, specifically between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. This timing is significantly earlier than
amniocentesis (weeks 15-20), allowing for earlier clinical decision-making.




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