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KAPLAN INTEGRATED TEST 1 — COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
KAPLAN
Prepare for the Kaplan Integrated Test 1 Exam with a focused study resource designed
to reinforce foundational nursing concepts across multiple clinical areas. It supports
review of patient assessment, safety, prioritization, clinical judgment, nursing
interventions, and effective care planning. Use the material to strengthen knowledge,
identify areas requiring additional review, and build confidence before the exam. This
resource is best suited for nursing students and NCLEX candidates preparing for
integrated nursing assessments.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Questions 1-15)
1. A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with dehydration.
Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
a) Bounding pulse and crackles in the lungs
b) Thready pulse and orthostatic hypotension
c) Jugular vein distention and peripheral edema
d) Weight gain and hypertension
Answer: b) Thready pulse and orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Dehydration causes decreased intravascular volume, leading to a
weak (thready) pulse and orthostatic hypotension due to impaired
compensatory mechanisms. Bounding pulse, crackles, JVD, edema, weight
gain, and hypertension are signs of fluid overload.
2. A client who is 2 days post-operative from abdominal surgery has a
nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which finding
indicates the NG tube is functioning properly?
a) Absence of bowel sounds
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b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Abdominal distention
d) Drainage of 1,200 mL of greenish fluid in 24 hours
Answer: d) Drainage of 1,200 mL of greenish fluid in 24 hours
Rationale: An NG tube on low intermittent suction should drain gastric
contents. The presence of drainage indicates the tube is patent and
functioning. Absence of bowel sounds, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal
distention indicate the NG tube may be malfunctioning or not adequately
decompressing the stomach.
3. The nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which client is at greatest
risk for falling?
a) A 45-year-old with diabetes
b) A 70-year-old with a history of stroke and gait instability
c) A 60-year-old with osteoarthritis of the knees
d) A 55-year-old with hypertension
Answer: b) A 70-year-old with a history of stroke and gait instability
Rationale: Advanced age combined with a history of stroke and gait instability
significantly increases fall risk. The Morse Fall Scale identifies history of
falling, secondary diagnosis, gait, and use of assistive devices as key risk
factors.
4. A client requires a sterile dressing change. Which action by the nurse
maintains sterile technique?
a) Opening the sterile package away from the body
b) Keeping the sterile field at waist level
c) Pouring sterile solution onto the sterile field from a distance of 6 inches
d) Allowing the sterile field to become wet and continuing to use it
Answer: b) Keeping the sterile field at waist level
Rationale: A sterile field should be kept at or above waist level to prevent
contamination. Sterile packages should be opened away from the body, but
the first flap is opened away, and side flaps are opened to the side. Pouring
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sterile solution should be done from a height of 4-6 inches, not directly onto
the field. A wet sterile field is considered contaminated.
5. A client reports pain rated 8 on a scale of 0-10. The nurse administers
morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the client reports pain
rated 4. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
a) Document that the pain medication was effective
b) Assess for side effects of the medication
c) Administer another dose of morphine as needed
d) Reassess pain in 60 minutes
Answer: b) Assess for side effects of the medication
Rationale: Before administering another dose or leaving the client, the nurse
must assess for potential side effects, especially respiratory depression. A
decrease from 8 to 4 indicates some effectiveness. Pain should be reassessed
at the peak effect (30-60 minutes after IV administration), but safety
assessment is the priority.
6. A client is on strict bed rest. The nurse should perform passive range of
motion exercises to prevent which complication?
a) Constipation
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Joint contractures
d) Pressure ulcers
Answer: c) Joint contractures
Rationale: Passive range of motion exercises prevent joint contractures,
which result from immobility and lack of joint movement. Constipation, UTI,
and pressure ulcers are also complications of immobility but are prevented by
other interventions (hydration, toileting, turning and repositioning).
7. A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which item can the client
have?
a) Milk
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b) Orange juice with pulp
c) Chicken broth
d) Cream of wheat
Answer: c) Chicken broth
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent at room
temperature, such as broth, clear juices (apple, cranberry, grape), gelatin, and
ice pops. Milk, juice with pulp, and cream of wheat are not allowed on a clear
liquid diet.
8. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which assessment
finding indicates the need for a smaller catheter size?
a) The client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia
b) The client has a history of bladder cancer
c) The client has a history of urinary tract infections
d) The client has a history of kidney stones
Answer: a) The client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes narrowing of the
urethra. A smaller catheter (e.g., 14 French or smaller) may be needed to
prevent trauma to the urethra. The other conditions do not necessarily
indicate a need for a smaller catheter.
9. A client is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The nurse
notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 88%. Which action should the
nurse take first?
a) Increase the oxygen to 4 L/min
b) Assess the client's respiratory status and airway
c) Notify the healthcare provider
d) Check the oxygen flow rate and tubing connections
Answer: d) Check the oxygen flow rate and tubing connections
Rationale: The first action is to check the oxygen delivery system to ensure it
is functioning properly and that the client is actually receiving the prescribed
oxygen. After confirming the delivery system is intact, the nurse should assess
KAPLAN INTEGRATED TEST 1 — COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE (100) CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
KAPLAN
Prepare for the Kaplan Integrated Test 1 Exam with a focused study resource designed
to reinforce foundational nursing concepts across multiple clinical areas. It supports
review of patient assessment, safety, prioritization, clinical judgment, nursing
interventions, and effective care planning. Use the material to strengthen knowledge,
identify areas requiring additional review, and build confidence before the exam. This
resource is best suited for nursing students and NCLEX candidates preparing for
integrated nursing assessments.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (Questions 1-15)
1. A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with dehydration.
Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
a) Bounding pulse and crackles in the lungs
b) Thready pulse and orthostatic hypotension
c) Jugular vein distention and peripheral edema
d) Weight gain and hypertension
Answer: b) Thready pulse and orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Dehydration causes decreased intravascular volume, leading to a
weak (thready) pulse and orthostatic hypotension due to impaired
compensatory mechanisms. Bounding pulse, crackles, JVD, edema, weight
gain, and hypertension are signs of fluid overload.
2. A client who is 2 days post-operative from abdominal surgery has a
nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which finding
indicates the NG tube is functioning properly?
a) Absence of bowel sounds
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b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Abdominal distention
d) Drainage of 1,200 mL of greenish fluid in 24 hours
Answer: d) Drainage of 1,200 mL of greenish fluid in 24 hours
Rationale: An NG tube on low intermittent suction should drain gastric
contents. The presence of drainage indicates the tube is patent and
functioning. Absence of bowel sounds, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal
distention indicate the NG tube may be malfunctioning or not adequately
decompressing the stomach.
3. The nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which client is at greatest
risk for falling?
a) A 45-year-old with diabetes
b) A 70-year-old with a history of stroke and gait instability
c) A 60-year-old with osteoarthritis of the knees
d) A 55-year-old with hypertension
Answer: b) A 70-year-old with a history of stroke and gait instability
Rationale: Advanced age combined with a history of stroke and gait instability
significantly increases fall risk. The Morse Fall Scale identifies history of
falling, secondary diagnosis, gait, and use of assistive devices as key risk
factors.
4. A client requires a sterile dressing change. Which action by the nurse
maintains sterile technique?
a) Opening the sterile package away from the body
b) Keeping the sterile field at waist level
c) Pouring sterile solution onto the sterile field from a distance of 6 inches
d) Allowing the sterile field to become wet and continuing to use it
Answer: b) Keeping the sterile field at waist level
Rationale: A sterile field should be kept at or above waist level to prevent
contamination. Sterile packages should be opened away from the body, but
the first flap is opened away, and side flaps are opened to the side. Pouring
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sterile solution should be done from a height of 4-6 inches, not directly onto
the field. A wet sterile field is considered contaminated.
5. A client reports pain rated 8 on a scale of 0-10. The nurse administers
morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Thirty minutes later, the client reports pain
rated 4. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
a) Document that the pain medication was effective
b) Assess for side effects of the medication
c) Administer another dose of morphine as needed
d) Reassess pain in 60 minutes
Answer: b) Assess for side effects of the medication
Rationale: Before administering another dose or leaving the client, the nurse
must assess for potential side effects, especially respiratory depression. A
decrease from 8 to 4 indicates some effectiveness. Pain should be reassessed
at the peak effect (30-60 minutes after IV administration), but safety
assessment is the priority.
6. A client is on strict bed rest. The nurse should perform passive range of
motion exercises to prevent which complication?
a) Constipation
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Joint contractures
d) Pressure ulcers
Answer: c) Joint contractures
Rationale: Passive range of motion exercises prevent joint contractures,
which result from immobility and lack of joint movement. Constipation, UTI,
and pressure ulcers are also complications of immobility but are prevented by
other interventions (hydration, toileting, turning and repositioning).
7. A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which item can the client
have?
a) Milk
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b) Orange juice with pulp
c) Chicken broth
d) Cream of wheat
Answer: c) Chicken broth
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent at room
temperature, such as broth, clear juices (apple, cranberry, grape), gelatin, and
ice pops. Milk, juice with pulp, and cream of wheat are not allowed on a clear
liquid diet.
8. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which assessment
finding indicates the need for a smaller catheter size?
a) The client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia
b) The client has a history of bladder cancer
c) The client has a history of urinary tract infections
d) The client has a history of kidney stones
Answer: a) The client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) causes narrowing of the
urethra. A smaller catheter (e.g., 14 French or smaller) may be needed to
prevent trauma to the urethra. The other conditions do not necessarily
indicate a need for a smaller catheter.
9. A client is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The nurse
notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 88%. Which action should the
nurse take first?
a) Increase the oxygen to 4 L/min
b) Assess the client's respiratory status and airway
c) Notify the healthcare provider
d) Check the oxygen flow rate and tubing connections
Answer: d) Check the oxygen flow rate and tubing connections
Rationale: The first action is to check the oxygen delivery system to ensure it
is functioning properly and that the client is actually receiving the prescribed
oxygen. After confirming the delivery system is intact, the nurse should assess
