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NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Exam 2 Complete Study Guide & Practice Test Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed Rationales (2026/2027)

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Ace your second major nursing nursing milestone with this comprehensive NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Exam 2 study guide and updated practice test bank. Master complex, high-yield organ system concepts including cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine clinical disorders. Every verified question features a highly detailed, clinical rationale designed to sharpen your diagnostic reasoning skills and guarantee a top grade on your nursing school exam.

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NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Exam 2 Complete Study Guide &
Practice Test Bank Updated Solution | Questions with Answers &
Detailed Rationales 2026

Pass your second nursing milestone assessment with confidence using this
comprehensive NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Exam 2 preparation package. This high-
yield study guide and practice test bank features realistic exam questions paired with
100% verified correct answers and detailed clinical rationales covering advanced
cellular alterations, immune responses, inflammation, and systemic homeostatic
disruptions. It is the ultimate tool for pre-licensure nursing students looking to streamline
study routines, master clinical judgment case studies, and confidently secure an A+
grade.



1. A nurse is assessing a client with pericarditis. Which finding is most
characteristic of this condition?

A. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration
B. Chest pain that is relieved by rest
C. Chest pain that radiates to the left arm
D. Chest pain that is relieved by nitroglycerin

Answer: A
Rationale: Pericarditis is characterized by chest pain that worsens with inspiration and
lying flat. The pain is often relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Pericarditis is
caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac. Rest, nitroglycerin, and arm radiation are
more typical of angina or MI.




2. What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?

A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli

Answer: A
Rationale: Streptococcus viridans is the most common cause of subacute infective

,endocarditis, often originating from the oral cavity. Staphylococcus aureus is the most
common cause of acute infective endocarditis. S. pneumoniae and E. coli are less common
causes.




3. A patient is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. Which finding is expected?

A. Systolic ejection murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. Continuous murmur
D. Pericardial friction rub

Answer: A
Rationale: Aortic stenosis is characterized by a systolic ejection murmur heard best at the
right upper sternal border. It is caused by narrowing of the aortic valve, obstructing left
ventricular outflow. Diastolic murmurs are associated with aortic regurgitation or mitral
stenosis.




4. Which of the following is a complication of mitral stenosis?

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Left-sided heart failure
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: Mitral stenosis can lead to atrial fibrillation, pulmonary hypertension, and left-
sided heart failure. It is caused by narrowing of the mitral valve, leading to increased left
atrial pressure and backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation.




5. A patient is diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which finding is
characteristic?

,A. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
B. Dilated left ventricle
C. Decreased ejection fraction
D. Normal wall thickness

Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by asymmetric septal
hypertrophy, which can cause dynamic left ventricular outflow obstruction. It is a genetic
condition. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by a dilated left ventricle and
decreased ejection fraction.




6. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing deep vein thrombosis
(DVT)?

A. Prolonged immobility
B. Surgery
C. Cancer
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: Prolonged immobility, surgery, and cancer are all risk factors for DVT. Virchow's
triad (stasis, hypercoagulability, and endothelial injury) describes the mechanisms that
lead to thrombosis. Prophylactic anticoagulation is recommended for high-risk patients.




7. What is the most common cause of chronic venous insufficiency?

A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Varicose veins
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Peripheral artery disease

Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic venous insufficiency is most commonly caused by deep vein
thrombosis, which damages venous valves and leads to venous stasis. Other causes
include varicose veins and heart failure. Treatment includes compression stockings and leg
elevation.

, 8. A patient presents with sudden, severe chest pain that is sharp and tearing in
nature. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis

Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe, tearing chest pain that may
radiate to the back. It is a life-threatening condition caused by a tear in the aortic intima.
MI, PE, and pericarditis have different pain characteristics.




9. Which of the following is a complication of untreated hypertension?

A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Stroke
C. Renal failure
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Rationale: Untreated hypertension can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy, stroke, and
renal failure. Chronic hypertension causes vascular damage and organ dysfunction. Blood
pressure control is essential to prevent these complications.




10. What is the primary cause of cor pulmonale?

A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Left-sided heart failure
D. Myocardial infarction

Answer: A
Rationale: Cor pulmonale is caused by pulmonary hypertension, which leads to right-sided

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