2026 NR603 CEA Exam | Actual Exam Questions, Answers,
Case Studies & Rationales | Frequently Most Tested Questions
and 100% Accurate
Pass your primary care clinical evaluation assessment on your first attempt with this
definitive NR603 CEA final exam preparation bank. This comprehensive study guide
features actual exam-style questions, interactive clinical case studies, 100% verified
correct answers, and thorough diagnostic rationales covering adult-gerontology acute
and chronic illness management, differential diagnoses, and evidence-based treatment
plans. It is the ultimate preparatory tool for family nurse practitioner students looking to
compress study routines, eliminate test anxiety, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A 47-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of persistent, intrusive
thoughts about harming his family. He reports that he does not want to act on
these thoughts and finds them distressing. He spends hours each day checking
locks and doors to ensure his family's safety. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Specific phobia
Answer: A
Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by obsessions (intrusive,
unwanted thoughts) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors performed to reduce anxiety).
The patient's intrusive thoughts about harming his family and his checking compulsions
are classic OCD symptoms. GAD involves worry about multiple domains, panic disorder
involves panic attacks, and specific phobia involves fear of a specific object.
2. A 33-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of fluctuating symptoms
including chest pain, palpitations, and dizziness. Multiple medical workups have
been negative. She reports that the symptoms are interfering with her ability to
work and socialize. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
,A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Factitious disorder
D. Illness anxiety disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by one or more somatic symptoms
that are distressing and result in significant disruption of daily life. The patient's symptoms
and negative workups suggest this diagnosis. Conversion disorder involves neurologic
symptoms, factitious disorder involves intentional production of symptoms, and illness
anxiety disorder involves excessive worry about having a serious illness.
3. A 29-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of avoiding social situations
due to fear of being judged. He reports that he feels intensely anxious in social
settings and often leaves early. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. SSRI
C. Both A and B
D. Benzodiazepine
Answer: C
Rationale: Social anxiety disorder is effectively treated with CBT and SSRIs. The
combination is often more effective than either alone. Benzodiazepines are not first-line
due to dependence risk. CBT addresses the underlying thought patterns, and SSRIs reduce
anxiety symptoms.
4. A 52-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of episodes of binge
eating. She reports eating large amounts of food in a short period, feeling a loss of
control during the episodes, and feeling disgusted with herself afterward. She
does not engage in compensatory behaviors. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
,A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Lisdexamfetamine
C. Both A and B
D. Fluoxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Binge eating disorder is treated with CBT and lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse),
which is FDA-approved for moderate to severe binge eating disorder. Fluoxetine is not
FDA-approved for binge eating disorder. Both CBT and lisdexamfetamine are appropriate
initial treatments.
5. A 38-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of persistent, uncontrollable
worry about his job performance, financial situation, and family health. He reports
difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, and irritability. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?
A. Escitalopram
B. Alprazolam
C. Buspirone
D. Propranolol
Answer: A
Rationale: Escitalopram (SSRI) is first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder.
Alprazolam (benzodiazepine) is not first-line due to dependence risk. Buspirone may be
used but SSRIs are preferred. Propranolol is used for performance anxiety, not GAD.
6. A 65-year-old female presents with a 5-year history of progressive cognitive
decline, memory loss, and difficulty with activities of daily living. She frequently
misplaces items and has difficulty with language. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid function tests, and
vitamin B12 level
B. MRI of the brain
, C. EEG
D. Lumbar puncture
Answer: A
Rationale: The initial workup for dementia should include lab tests to rule out reversible
causes, including CBC, CMP, thyroid function tests, and vitamin B12 level. MRI, EEG, and
lumbar puncture are not routine initial steps unless indicated by specific symptoms.
7. A 27-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of episodes of binge
eating followed by self-induced vomiting. She reports that she is at a normal
weight and is concerned about her eating behaviors. Which of the following is the
most appropriate pharmacological treatment?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Paroxetine
D. Escitalopram
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluoxetine is the only FDA-approved SSRI for bulimia nervosa. It is the first-line
pharmacological treatment. Sertraline, paroxetine, and escitalopram are not FDA-
approved for bulimia.
8. A 55-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive memory loss,
personality changes, and difficulty with problem-solving. He has a history of
hypertension and diabetes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Lewy body dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
Answer: A
Rationale: Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline and history of
cerebrovascular disease. The patient's risk factors of hypertension and diabetes suggest
vascular dementia. Alzheimer's disease has a gradual onset. Lewy body dementia involves
Case Studies & Rationales | Frequently Most Tested Questions
and 100% Accurate
Pass your primary care clinical evaluation assessment on your first attempt with this
definitive NR603 CEA final exam preparation bank. This comprehensive study guide
features actual exam-style questions, interactive clinical case studies, 100% verified
correct answers, and thorough diagnostic rationales covering adult-gerontology acute
and chronic illness management, differential diagnoses, and evidence-based treatment
plans. It is the ultimate preparatory tool for family nurse practitioner students looking to
compress study routines, eliminate test anxiety, and secure an A+ grade.
1. A 47-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of persistent, intrusive
thoughts about harming his family. He reports that he does not want to act on
these thoughts and finds them distressing. He spends hours each day checking
locks and doors to ensure his family's safety. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Specific phobia
Answer: A
Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by obsessions (intrusive,
unwanted thoughts) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors performed to reduce anxiety).
The patient's intrusive thoughts about harming his family and his checking compulsions
are classic OCD symptoms. GAD involves worry about multiple domains, panic disorder
involves panic attacks, and specific phobia involves fear of a specific object.
2. A 33-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of fluctuating symptoms
including chest pain, palpitations, and dizziness. Multiple medical workups have
been negative. She reports that the symptoms are interfering with her ability to
work and socialize. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
,A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Conversion disorder
C. Factitious disorder
D. Illness anxiety disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by one or more somatic symptoms
that are distressing and result in significant disruption of daily life. The patient's symptoms
and negative workups suggest this diagnosis. Conversion disorder involves neurologic
symptoms, factitious disorder involves intentional production of symptoms, and illness
anxiety disorder involves excessive worry about having a serious illness.
3. A 29-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of avoiding social situations
due to fear of being judged. He reports that he feels intensely anxious in social
settings and often leaves early. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial treatment?
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. SSRI
C. Both A and B
D. Benzodiazepine
Answer: C
Rationale: Social anxiety disorder is effectively treated with CBT and SSRIs. The
combination is often more effective than either alone. Benzodiazepines are not first-line
due to dependence risk. CBT addresses the underlying thought patterns, and SSRIs reduce
anxiety symptoms.
4. A 52-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of episodes of binge
eating. She reports eating large amounts of food in a short period, feeling a loss of
control during the episodes, and feeling disgusted with herself afterward. She
does not engage in compensatory behaviors. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
,A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Lisdexamfetamine
C. Both A and B
D. Fluoxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Binge eating disorder is treated with CBT and lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse),
which is FDA-approved for moderate to severe binge eating disorder. Fluoxetine is not
FDA-approved for binge eating disorder. Both CBT and lisdexamfetamine are appropriate
initial treatments.
5. A 38-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of persistent, uncontrollable
worry about his job performance, financial situation, and family health. He reports
difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, and irritability. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?
A. Escitalopram
B. Alprazolam
C. Buspirone
D. Propranolol
Answer: A
Rationale: Escitalopram (SSRI) is first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder.
Alprazolam (benzodiazepine) is not first-line due to dependence risk. Buspirone may be
used but SSRIs are preferred. Propranolol is used for performance anxiety, not GAD.
6. A 65-year-old female presents with a 5-year history of progressive cognitive
decline, memory loss, and difficulty with activities of daily living. She frequently
misplaces items and has difficulty with language. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. Complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, thyroid function tests, and
vitamin B12 level
B. MRI of the brain
, C. EEG
D. Lumbar puncture
Answer: A
Rationale: The initial workup for dementia should include lab tests to rule out reversible
causes, including CBC, CMP, thyroid function tests, and vitamin B12 level. MRI, EEG, and
lumbar puncture are not routine initial steps unless indicated by specific symptoms.
7. A 27-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of episodes of binge
eating followed by self-induced vomiting. She reports that she is at a normal
weight and is concerned about her eating behaviors. Which of the following is the
most appropriate pharmacological treatment?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Paroxetine
D. Escitalopram
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluoxetine is the only FDA-approved SSRI for bulimia nervosa. It is the first-line
pharmacological treatment. Sertraline, paroxetine, and escitalopram are not FDA-
approved for bulimia.
8. A 55-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive memory loss,
personality changes, and difficulty with problem-solving. He has a history of
hypertension and diabetes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. Lewy body dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
Answer: A
Rationale: Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline and history of
cerebrovascular disease. The patient's risk factors of hypertension and diabetes suggest
vascular dementia. Alzheimer's disease has a gradual onset. Lewy body dementia involves
