CST Certified Surgical Technologist Exam – 300
Practice Questions (Complete Set)
QUESTIONS 1-100
1. A patient is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy. During dissection of the
cystic duct, which instrument is necessary?
A. Ochsner forceps
B. Mixter clamp
C. Jennings retractor
D. O'Sullivan-O'Connor retractor
Rationale: A Mixter clamp (right-angle clamp) is used to dissect and clamp the cystic duct
during cholecystectomy, allowing for safe isolation before ligation and division.
2. Which structure is separated first when a paramedian incision is performed?
A. Peritoneum
B. Transverse abdominis
C. External oblique
D. Rectus abdominis
Rationale: A paramedian incision is made lateral to the midline, separating the rectus
abdominis muscle from its sheath, providing access while preserving the linea alba.
3. What is the correct anatomical position for a total hip arthroplasty?
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Lateral decubitus
D. Fowler's
Rationale: Lateral decubitus positioning provides optimal access to the hip joint from the
side, allowing proper visualization and instrument access.
4. Which sterile item is used with an electrosurgical unit?
A. Generator
,B. Patient return electrode
C. Active electrode
D. Foot pedal
Rationale: The patient return electrode (grounding pad) is a sterile item applied to the
patient to complete the electrosurgical circuit and prevent burns.
5. Which hemostatic agent is contraindicated in the presence of infection?
A. Topical thrombin
B. Oxidized cellulose
C. Absorbable gelatin
D. Absorbable collagen
Rationale: Oxidized cellulose (Surgicel) is acidic and can potentiate infection; it should be
avoided in contaminated or infected wounds.
6. What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?
A. Hyoid
B. Manubrium
C. Thyroid gland
D. Cricoid cartilage
Rationale: Cricoid pressure (Sellick's maneuver) is applied during rapid-sequence
intubation to occlude the esophagus and prevent gastric aspiration.
7. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
A. A drape with an opening that exposes the operative site
B. A split drape that has two tails
C. A drape used to cover the operating table
D. An incise drape that is self-adhering
Rationale: A fenestrated drape has a pre-cut opening (fenestration) that exposes the
surgical site while maintaining a sterile barrier.
8. An appendectomy incision closed with suture is considered which type of
wound closure?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Third intention
,Rationale: Primary intention healing occurs when wound edges are approximated and
sutured together, as in a surgical incision.
9. Which is the most serious complication of a strangulated hernia?
A. Shock
B. Necrosis
C. Infection
D. Hemorrhage
Rationale: Strangulated hernia compromises blood supply, leading to tissue necrosis and
potential perforation if not treated emergently.
10. What is the primary purpose of a surgical count?
A. To document the number of instruments used
B. To prevent retained surgical items
C. To track the surgeon's time
D. To count the number of sutures
Rationale: The primary purpose of a surgical count is to prevent retained surgical items
(sponges, needles, sharps) from being left in the patient.
11. A patient is in Trendelenburg position. Which safety consideration is most
important?
A. Preventing the patient from sliding off the table
B. Elevating legs above the heart
C. Tucking arms at the sides
D. Placing a roll under the knees
Rationale: In Trendelenburg, the patient is tilted with the head lower than the feet,
increasing the risk of sliding. Shoulder braces or a footboard may be used.
12. Which sterilization method is recommended for heat- and moisture-sensitive
instruments?
A. Steam autoclave
B. Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization
C. Dry heat sterilization
D. Boiling water
Rationale: Ethylene oxide (EtO) is a low-temperature sterilization method used for heat-
and moisture-sensitive instruments like flexible endoscopes.
, 13. The "time-out" before a surgical procedure is used to:
A. Conduct the surgical hand scrub
B. Verify the correct patient, procedure, and surgical site
C. Count all surgical instruments
D. Position the patient
Rationale: The "time-out" is performed immediately before the procedure to verify correct
patient identity, procedure, and surgical site, preventing errors.
14. Which positioning device is commonly used for total knee arthroplasty?
A. Pneumatic tourniquet
B. Lateral positioner
C. Shoulder braces
D. Kidney rest
Rationale: A pneumatic tourniquet is applied to the upper thigh to create a bloodless field
during total knee arthroplasty and other extremity surgeries.
15. Which dressing is applied to a clean, closed incision to absorb minimal
drainage?
A. Wet-to-dry dressing
B. Dry sterile dressing (gauze)
C. Negative pressure wound therapy
D. Hydrocolloid dressing
Rationale: Dry sterile gauze dressings are applied to clean, closed incisions to absorb
minimal drainage and protect the wound.
16. Which suture material is absorbable and commonly used for subcutaneous
closure?
A. Vicryl (polyglactin 910)
B. Silk
C. Nylon
D. Prolene
Rationale: Vicryl is an absorbable synthetic suture commonly used for subcutaneous
closure and gastrointestinal anastomoses.
17. What is the purpose of a neutral zone on the back table?
A. To store unused instruments
B. To create a designated area for passing sharps and instruments safely
Practice Questions (Complete Set)
QUESTIONS 1-100
1. A patient is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy. During dissection of the
cystic duct, which instrument is necessary?
A. Ochsner forceps
B. Mixter clamp
C. Jennings retractor
D. O'Sullivan-O'Connor retractor
Rationale: A Mixter clamp (right-angle clamp) is used to dissect and clamp the cystic duct
during cholecystectomy, allowing for safe isolation before ligation and division.
2. Which structure is separated first when a paramedian incision is performed?
A. Peritoneum
B. Transverse abdominis
C. External oblique
D. Rectus abdominis
Rationale: A paramedian incision is made lateral to the midline, separating the rectus
abdominis muscle from its sheath, providing access while preserving the linea alba.
3. What is the correct anatomical position for a total hip arthroplasty?
A. Prone
B. Supine
C. Lateral decubitus
D. Fowler's
Rationale: Lateral decubitus positioning provides optimal access to the hip joint from the
side, allowing proper visualization and instrument access.
4. Which sterile item is used with an electrosurgical unit?
A. Generator
,B. Patient return electrode
C. Active electrode
D. Foot pedal
Rationale: The patient return electrode (grounding pad) is a sterile item applied to the
patient to complete the electrosurgical circuit and prevent burns.
5. Which hemostatic agent is contraindicated in the presence of infection?
A. Topical thrombin
B. Oxidized cellulose
C. Absorbable gelatin
D. Absorbable collagen
Rationale: Oxidized cellulose (Surgicel) is acidic and can potentiate infection; it should be
avoided in contaminated or infected wounds.
6. What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation?
A. Hyoid
B. Manubrium
C. Thyroid gland
D. Cricoid cartilage
Rationale: Cricoid pressure (Sellick's maneuver) is applied during rapid-sequence
intubation to occlude the esophagus and prevent gastric aspiration.
7. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
A. A drape with an opening that exposes the operative site
B. A split drape that has two tails
C. A drape used to cover the operating table
D. An incise drape that is self-adhering
Rationale: A fenestrated drape has a pre-cut opening (fenestration) that exposes the
surgical site while maintaining a sterile barrier.
8. An appendectomy incision closed with suture is considered which type of
wound closure?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Third intention
,Rationale: Primary intention healing occurs when wound edges are approximated and
sutured together, as in a surgical incision.
9. Which is the most serious complication of a strangulated hernia?
A. Shock
B. Necrosis
C. Infection
D. Hemorrhage
Rationale: Strangulated hernia compromises blood supply, leading to tissue necrosis and
potential perforation if not treated emergently.
10. What is the primary purpose of a surgical count?
A. To document the number of instruments used
B. To prevent retained surgical items
C. To track the surgeon's time
D. To count the number of sutures
Rationale: The primary purpose of a surgical count is to prevent retained surgical items
(sponges, needles, sharps) from being left in the patient.
11. A patient is in Trendelenburg position. Which safety consideration is most
important?
A. Preventing the patient from sliding off the table
B. Elevating legs above the heart
C. Tucking arms at the sides
D. Placing a roll under the knees
Rationale: In Trendelenburg, the patient is tilted with the head lower than the feet,
increasing the risk of sliding. Shoulder braces or a footboard may be used.
12. Which sterilization method is recommended for heat- and moisture-sensitive
instruments?
A. Steam autoclave
B. Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization
C. Dry heat sterilization
D. Boiling water
Rationale: Ethylene oxide (EtO) is a low-temperature sterilization method used for heat-
and moisture-sensitive instruments like flexible endoscopes.
, 13. The "time-out" before a surgical procedure is used to:
A. Conduct the surgical hand scrub
B. Verify the correct patient, procedure, and surgical site
C. Count all surgical instruments
D. Position the patient
Rationale: The "time-out" is performed immediately before the procedure to verify correct
patient identity, procedure, and surgical site, preventing errors.
14. Which positioning device is commonly used for total knee arthroplasty?
A. Pneumatic tourniquet
B. Lateral positioner
C. Shoulder braces
D. Kidney rest
Rationale: A pneumatic tourniquet is applied to the upper thigh to create a bloodless field
during total knee arthroplasty and other extremity surgeries.
15. Which dressing is applied to a clean, closed incision to absorb minimal
drainage?
A. Wet-to-dry dressing
B. Dry sterile dressing (gauze)
C. Negative pressure wound therapy
D. Hydrocolloid dressing
Rationale: Dry sterile gauze dressings are applied to clean, closed incisions to absorb
minimal drainage and protect the wound.
16. Which suture material is absorbable and commonly used for subcutaneous
closure?
A. Vicryl (polyglactin 910)
B. Silk
C. Nylon
D. Prolene
Rationale: Vicryl is an absorbable synthetic suture commonly used for subcutaneous
closure and gastrointestinal anastomoses.
17. What is the purpose of a neutral zone on the back table?
A. To store unused instruments
B. To create a designated area for passing sharps and instruments safely
