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LSU NURS 402 Exam 3 Practice Test 2026 | Practice Questions, Answers & Detailed Rationales

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Prepare for the LSU NURS 402 Exam 3 Practice Test with a focused review of important nursing concepts commonly assessed in advanced medical-surgical and clinical nursing courses. This practice test covers topics such as patient assessment, disease management, pharmacology, clinical decision-making, nursing interventions, prioritization, safety, and evidence-based care. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed rationale to help explain why the answer is correct and strengthen understanding for exam preparation.

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LSU NURS 402 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE TEST 2026

1. A client with COPD is experiencing increased dyspnea. Which position should the nurse
recommend?
A. High-Fowler's
B. Supine
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
Answer: A
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and can improve ventilation.
2. Which finding is most concerning in a client with pneumonia?
A. Productive cough
B. Temperature of 100.4°F
C. Oxygen saturation of 82% with respiratory distress
D. Mild fatigue
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress require immediate intervention.
3. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary purpose of this
medication?
A. Reduce blood glucose
B. Promote bronchodilation
C. Increase urine output
D. Prevent bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale:Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator used to relieve acute bronchospasm.
4. Which assessment finding is most consistent with pneumothorax?
A. Bilateral peripheral edema
B. Abdominal distention
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Unilateral absent breath sounds
Answer: D
Rationale: Air in the pleural space can cause diminished or absent breath sounds on the
affected side.

,5. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative atelectasis?
A. Incentive spirometry
B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Restricting coughing
D. Keeping the client flat
Answer: A
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes alveolar expansion.
6. A client suddenly develops dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain after prolonged immobility.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Gastritis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Renal colic
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following immobility are concerning for
pulmonary embolism.
7. Which finding is characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Crackles only
C. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention
D. Productive cough
Answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided failure causes systemic venous congestion.
8. A client with heart failure gains 4 lb over three days. What does this most likely indicate?
A. Improved cardiac output
B. Loss of adipose tissue
C. Dehydration
D. Fluid retention
Answer: D
Rationale: Rapid weight gain commonly reflects fluid accumulation.
9. Which laboratory marker is most specific for myocardial injury?
A. Troponin
B. Amylase

, C. Bilirubin
D. Albumin
Answer: A
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are highly specific markers of myocardial injury.
10. A client with atrial fibrillation receives an anticoagulant. What is the primary purpose?
A. Increase heart rate
B. Prevent thromboembolism
C. Increase blood pressure
D. Reduce blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thrombus formation and embolic stroke.
11. Which finding in a client taking warfarin requires immediate reporting?
A. Mild hunger
B. Sneezing
C. Black, tarry stools
D. Increased appetite
Answer: C
Rationale: Melena may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.
12. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports leg pain during walking that improves
with rest. What is this called?
A. Orthopnea
B. Renal colic
C. Pleurisy
D. Intermittent claudication
Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication occurs when arterial blood flow cannot meet muscle
demands during activity.
13. Which finding is associated with chronic venous insufficiency?
A. Dependent edema
B. Absent radial pulse
C. Sudden chest pain
D. Hemoptysis
Answer: A
Rationale: Venous insufficiency commonly causes dependent edema.

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