FNP ADVANCED CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS · CHAMBERLAIN
NR 603 CEA EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
2026/2027 Official Exam
A+
A+ Verified Questions & Rationales · Advanced Clinical Diagnosis Across the Lifespan
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ 1. Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders
■ 2. Endocrine, Gastrointestinal & Renal Disorders
■ 3. Neurology, Musculoskeletal & Behavioral Health
■ 4. Women's Health, Pediatrics & Geriatrics
■ 5. Complex Diagnosis, Prevention & Professional Practice
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
Passing Score: 80% · 1 Mark per Question · Application/Analysis/Synthesis Level
, SECTION 1: Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders
Q1. A 58-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 45 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III,
and aVF. Troponin is elevated. The NP recognizes an inferior STEMI. What is the priority next step in management?
A. Activate the cardiac catheterization laboratory for emergent reperfusion and give aspirin if not already administered.
B. Schedule an outpatient stress test in one week.
C. Start only oral beta-blocker therapy and discharge.
D. Order a routine chest X-ray and observe for 24 hours without intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inferior STEMI requires immediate reperfusion. Activation of the cath lab (or thrombolysis if PCI is unavailable) and antiplatelet therapy are time-critical
priorities to limit infarct size.
Q2. A 72-year-old woman with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is optimized on an ACE inhibitor, evidence-based beta-blocker, and
mineralocorticoid-receptor antagonist. Which additional agent has become foundational for HFrEF and also provides modest blood-pressure
reduction?
A. A non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker as first-line add-on.
B. High-dose NSAIDs for concurrent arthritis.
C. An SGLT2 inhibitor, which improves heart-failure outcomes independent of diabetes status.
D. Immediate-release nifedipine for afterload reduction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors reduce HF hospitalizations and mortality in HFrEF (and many with HFpEF) and are now guideline-directed medical therapy regardless of
diabetes.
Q3. A 68-year-old man with new atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 and no absolute contraindications to anticoagulation. Which
approach is preferred for stroke prevention?
A. Aspirin monotherapy is always sufficient after age 65.
B. No antithrombotic therapy is needed if the patient is asymptomatic.
C. Oral anticoagulation (DOAC preferred over warfarin in most eligible patients) is indicated.
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy replaces anticoagulation in all older adults.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated CHA2DS2-VASc warrants anticoagulation. DOACs are generally preferred when renal function and cost allow, with individualized bleeding-risk
assessment.
Q4. A 55-year-old woman with COPD presents with increased dyspnea, purulent sputum, and mild hypoxemia. She is hemodynamically stable.
Initial management of this exacerbation should include:
A. Immediate mechanical ventilation for every exacerbation.
B. Short-acting bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids for most moderate exacerbations, and antibiotics when infection criteria are present.
C. Only cough suppressants and complete bed rest.
D. Discontinuation of all maintenance inhalers during the acute illness.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: COPD exacerbations are treated with intensified bronchodilators, a short course of systemic steroids, and antibiotics when bacterial infection is likely, plus
oxygen titration as needed.
Q5. A 60-year-old man has progressive dyspnea and a nonproductive cough. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC 0.62 and FEV1 48% predicted that
does not fully reverse. The NP classifies this as:
A. Obstructive pattern consistent with COPD of moderate-to-severe airflow limitation.
B. Normal spirometry.
C. Pure restrictive disease only.
D. Asthma with complete reversibility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.70 defines obstruction. FEV1 30–49% predicted corresponds to severe airflow limitation in GOLD classification; 50–79% is
moderate.
Q6. A 70-year-old patient with suspected pulmonary embolism has a Wells score of 6 (high probability). After ensuring hemodynamic stability, the
preferred diagnostic test is:
A. D-dimer alone without imaging.
B. CT pulmonary angiography (or V/Q scan if CT is contraindicated).
C. Only a chest X-ray.
D. Immediate empiric lifelong anticoagulation without confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High pretest probability warrants definitive imaging. CTPA is first-line in most patients; V/Q is an alternative when contrast or radiation is problematic.
NR 603 CEA · Page 2
NR 603 CEA EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
2026/2027 Official Exam
A+
A+ Verified Questions & Rationales · Advanced Clinical Diagnosis Across the Lifespan
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED EXAM DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
■ 1. Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders
■ 2. Endocrine, Gastrointestinal & Renal Disorders
■ 3. Neurology, Musculoskeletal & Behavioral Health
■ 4. Women's Health, Pediatrics & Geriatrics
■ 5. Complex Diagnosis, Prevention & Professional Practice
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
Passing Score: 80% · 1 Mark per Question · Application/Analysis/Synthesis Level
, SECTION 1: Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders
Q1. A 58-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 45 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III,
and aVF. Troponin is elevated. The NP recognizes an inferior STEMI. What is the priority next step in management?
A. Activate the cardiac catheterization laboratory for emergent reperfusion and give aspirin if not already administered.
B. Schedule an outpatient stress test in one week.
C. Start only oral beta-blocker therapy and discharge.
D. Order a routine chest X-ray and observe for 24 hours without intervention.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inferior STEMI requires immediate reperfusion. Activation of the cath lab (or thrombolysis if PCI is unavailable) and antiplatelet therapy are time-critical
priorities to limit infarct size.
Q2. A 72-year-old woman with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is optimized on an ACE inhibitor, evidence-based beta-blocker, and
mineralocorticoid-receptor antagonist. Which additional agent has become foundational for HFrEF and also provides modest blood-pressure
reduction?
A. A non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker as first-line add-on.
B. High-dose NSAIDs for concurrent arthritis.
C. An SGLT2 inhibitor, which improves heart-failure outcomes independent of diabetes status.
D. Immediate-release nifedipine for afterload reduction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors reduce HF hospitalizations and mortality in HFrEF (and many with HFpEF) and are now guideline-directed medical therapy regardless of
diabetes.
Q3. A 68-year-old man with new atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 and no absolute contraindications to anticoagulation. Which
approach is preferred for stroke prevention?
A. Aspirin monotherapy is always sufficient after age 65.
B. No antithrombotic therapy is needed if the patient is asymptomatic.
C. Oral anticoagulation (DOAC preferred over warfarin in most eligible patients) is indicated.
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy replaces anticoagulation in all older adults.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated CHA2DS2-VASc warrants anticoagulation. DOACs are generally preferred when renal function and cost allow, with individualized bleeding-risk
assessment.
Q4. A 55-year-old woman with COPD presents with increased dyspnea, purulent sputum, and mild hypoxemia. She is hemodynamically stable.
Initial management of this exacerbation should include:
A. Immediate mechanical ventilation for every exacerbation.
B. Short-acting bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids for most moderate exacerbations, and antibiotics when infection criteria are present.
C. Only cough suppressants and complete bed rest.
D. Discontinuation of all maintenance inhalers during the acute illness.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: COPD exacerbations are treated with intensified bronchodilators, a short course of systemic steroids, and antibiotics when bacterial infection is likely, plus
oxygen titration as needed.
Q5. A 60-year-old man has progressive dyspnea and a nonproductive cough. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC 0.62 and FEV1 48% predicted that
does not fully reverse. The NP classifies this as:
A. Obstructive pattern consistent with COPD of moderate-to-severe airflow limitation.
B. Normal spirometry.
C. Pure restrictive disease only.
D. Asthma with complete reversibility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.70 defines obstruction. FEV1 30–49% predicted corresponds to severe airflow limitation in GOLD classification; 50–79% is
moderate.
Q6. A 70-year-old patient with suspected pulmonary embolism has a Wells score of 6 (high probability). After ensuring hemodynamic stability, the
preferred diagnostic test is:
A. D-dimer alone without imaging.
B. CT pulmonary angiography (or V/Q scan if CT is contraindicated).
C. Only a chest X-ray.
D. Immediate empiric lifelong anticoagulation without confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High pretest probability warrants definitive imaging. CTPA is first-line in most patients; V/Q is an alternative when contrast or radiation is problematic.
NR 603 CEA · Page 2
