NRNP 6635 FINAL EXAM -
PSYCHOPATHOLOGY AND
DIAGNOSTIC REASONING. QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of mood swings. They describe a period of
one week where they felt extremely energetic, did not need sleep, and spent their entire
savings on a new business venture. Currently, they feel suicidal and lack interest in all
activities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder with Mixed Features
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Bipolar I Disorder requires at least one manic episode, which
involves a period of at least one week of elevated mood and significant impairment (like
spending all savings). Bipolar II only requires hypomania.
,2. Which of the following is a primary neurobiological difference between Neuroleptic
Malignant Syndrome (NMS) and Serotonin Syndrome?
A. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are predominant in Serotonin Syndrome.
B. Lead-pipe rigidity is a hallmark of Serotonin Syndrome.
C. Hyperthermia is only present in NMS.
D. NMS is caused by an excess of Serotonin in the synaptic cleft.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Serotonin Syndrome is characterized by neuromuscular
hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, myoclonus), whereas NMS is characterized by ‘lead-pipe’
muscle rigidity and is related to dopamine antagonism.
3. To diagnose Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires continuous signs of the disturbance for at
least how long?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires at least 6 months of
continuous signs of disturbance, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms.
, 4. A 10-year-old child exhibits a persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood and vindictiveness
for 8 months. He frequently loses his temper and argues with authority figures but does not
violate the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) involves angry/irritable
mood and defiant behavior without the serious violation of others’ rights seen in Conduct
Disorder.
5. Which brain region is primarily associated with the processing of fear and is often
overactive in patients with Panic Disorder?
A. Hippocampus
B. Prefrontal Cortex
C. Basal Ganglia
D. Amygdala
Answer: D
PSYCHOPATHOLOGY AND
DIAGNOSTIC REASONING. QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of mood swings. They describe a period of
one week where they felt extremely energetic, did not need sleep, and spent their entire
savings on a new business venture. Currently, they feel suicidal and lack interest in all
activities. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder with Mixed Features
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Bipolar II Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Bipolar I Disorder requires at least one manic episode, which
involves a period of at least one week of elevated mood and significant impairment (like
spending all savings). Bipolar II only requires hypomania.
,2. Which of the following is a primary neurobiological difference between Neuroleptic
Malignant Syndrome (NMS) and Serotonin Syndrome?
A. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are predominant in Serotonin Syndrome.
B. Lead-pipe rigidity is a hallmark of Serotonin Syndrome.
C. Hyperthermia is only present in NMS.
D. NMS is caused by an excess of Serotonin in the synaptic cleft.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Serotonin Syndrome is characterized by neuromuscular
hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, myoclonus), whereas NMS is characterized by ‘lead-pipe’
muscle rigidity and is related to dopamine antagonism.
3. To diagnose Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires continuous signs of the disturbance for at
least how long?
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The diagnosis of Schizophrenia requires at least 6 months of
continuous signs of disturbance, including at least 1 month of active-phase symptoms.
, 4. A 10-year-old child exhibits a persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood and vindictiveness
for 8 months. He frequently loses his temper and argues with authority figures but does not
violate the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
D. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) involves angry/irritable
mood and defiant behavior without the serious violation of others’ rights seen in Conduct
Disorder.
5. Which brain region is primarily associated with the processing of fear and is often
overactive in patients with Panic Disorder?
A. Hippocampus
B. Prefrontal Cortex
C. Basal Ganglia
D. Amygdala
Answer: D
