ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam – ATI RN
Mental Health Nursing Study Guide, Original
Practice Questions & Answers, Comprehensive
Assessment Preparation, Psychiatric Nursing
Review, Therapeutic Communication, Mental Status
Examination, Anxiety & Trauma-Related Disorders,
Depression, Bipolar Disorder, Schizophrenia,
Psychopharmacology, Substance Use Disorders,
Crisis Intervention, Suicide Prevention, Patient
Safety, Legal & Ethical Nursing & NGN-Style
Clinical Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with
borderline personality disorder. Which of the following findings is the nurse
most likely to observe?
A. Grandiose sense of self-importance
B. Persistent pattern of social inhibition
C. Intense, unstable relationships and impulsivity
D. Preoccupation with orderliness and perfectionism
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Intense, unstable relationships and impulsivity
Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked
impulsivity. Options A, B, and D are characteristic of narcissistic, avoidant, and
obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, respectively.
Question 2: A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed phenelzine.
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
A. Broiled beef
B. Fresh tuna
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Boiled potatoes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Cheddar cheese
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Clients taking MAOIs
must avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Aged cheeses like
cheddar are high in tyramine. The other options are generally safe to consume in
moderation.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering
to prevent delirium tremens?
,A. Naltrexone
B. Disulfiram
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Acamprosate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Chlordiazepoxide
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol
withdrawal symptoms and prevent progression to delirium tremens by reducing central
nervous system irritability. Naltrexone, disulfiram, and acamprosate are used for
maintenance and relapse prevention, not acute withdrawal.
Question 4: A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory
hallucinations. Which of the following nursing interventions is most
appropriate initially?
A. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
C. Encourage the client to listen to music to drown out the voices.
D. Isolate the client to reduce environmental stimuli.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations to
determine if the client is at risk for harming themselves or others. Telling the client the
voices are not real denies their experience, and isolation is not a first-line intervention.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client for serotonin syndrome. Which of the
following findings is a primary indicator?
A. Hypothermia and bradycardia
B. Muscle flaccidity and hyporeflexia
C. Fever, diaphoresis, and clonus
D. Constipation and urinary retention
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fever, diaphoresis, and clonus
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized
by a triad of altered mental status, autonomic instability (fever, diaphoresis), and
neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus, hyperreflexia). The other options describe
symptoms of other conditions.
Question 6: A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. The
nurse should monitor the client for early signs of toxicity, which include:
A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
C. Muscle weakness and ataxia
D. Severe hypotension and bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
,Rationale: Early signs of lithium toxicity (serum level 1.5-2.0 mEq/L) include nausea,
vomiting, diarrhea, and fine hand tremors. Polyuria and polydipsia are common side
effects but not necessarily signs of toxicity. The other options indicate more severe
toxicity.
Question 7: A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder reports
having recurrent nightmares and flashbacks. The nurse recognizes these
symptoms as:
A. Avoidance behaviors
B. Hyperarousal symptoms
C. Intrusion symptoms
D. Negative alterations in cognition
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Intrusion symptoms
Rationale: Intrusion symptoms in PTSD include recurrent, involuntary, and distressing
memories, dreams, and flashbacks related to the traumatic event. Avoidance,
hyperarousal, and negative cognitive alterations are other distinct symptom clusters.
Question 8: A nurse is educating a client about the side effect of
extrapyramidal symptoms associated with antipsychotic medications. Which
of the following describes akathisia?
A. Involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures
B. A subjective feeling of motor restlessness and the urge to move
C. Protrusion and rolling of the tongue
D. Stiff, rigid muscles and a mask-like face
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A subjective feeling of motor restlessness and the urge
to move
Rationale: Akathisia is a common EPS characterized by an intense feeling of inner
restlessness and a compulsive need to move. Dystonia involves abnormal postures,
tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary oral-facial movements, and parkinsonism
involves rigidity and bradykinesia.
Question 9: A client with antisocial personality disorder is admitted to the
unit. Which of the following behaviors is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Extreme dependency and clinging behavior
B. Manipulative and deceitful behavior toward others
C. Intense fear of abandonment
D. Odd beliefs and magical thinking
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Manipulative and deceitful behavior toward others
Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often involving manipulation,
, deceitfulness, and a lack of remorse. The other options are associated with dependent,
borderline, and schizotypal personality disorders.
Question 10: A nurse is providing care for a client with anorexia nervosa.
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention during the acute
phase of treatment?
A. Encouraging the client to make food choices independently
B. Supervising the client for 1 hour after meals
C. Allowing the client to exercise to reduce anxiety
D. Weighing the client daily with full disclosure of the weight
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Supervising the client for 1 hour after meals
Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa may engage in purging behaviors or excessive
exercise. Supervising the client for at least 1 hour after meals helps ensure they do not
purge and is a priority for maintaining physical safety.
Question 11: A client is taking fluoxetine. The nurse should instruct the client
to report which of the following adverse effects immediately?
A. Insomnia and mild nausea
B. Skin rash and itching
C. Headache and dry mouth
D. Sexual dysfunction
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Skin rash and itching
Rationale: A skin rash can be a sign of an allergic reaction, which can be serious. While
insomnia, nausea, headache, dry mouth, and sexual dysfunction are common side
effects of SSRIs, a rash should be reported immediately.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of
the following findings is an early manifestation of the disease?
A. Inability to swallow
B. Loss of the ability to walk
C. Difficulty finding the right words
D. Incontinence
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Difficulty finding the right words
Rationale: Early manifestations of Alzheimer's disease include mild cognitive
impairment such as difficulty with word-finding (anomia), short-term memory loss, and
problems with executive functioning. The other options are seen in later stages.
Question 13: A client has a new prescription for lamotrigine as a mood
stabilizer. The nurse should teach the client about which of the following
potentially serious adverse effects?
Mental Health Nursing Study Guide, Original
Practice Questions & Answers, Comprehensive
Assessment Preparation, Psychiatric Nursing
Review, Therapeutic Communication, Mental Status
Examination, Anxiety & Trauma-Related Disorders,
Depression, Bipolar Disorder, Schizophrenia,
Psychopharmacology, Substance Use Disorders,
Crisis Intervention, Suicide Prevention, Patient
Safety, Legal & Ethical Nursing & NGN-Style
Clinical Judgment
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with
borderline personality disorder. Which of the following findings is the nurse
most likely to observe?
A. Grandiose sense of self-importance
B. Persistent pattern of social inhibition
C. Intense, unstable relationships and impulsivity
D. Preoccupation with orderliness and perfectionism
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Intense, unstable relationships and impulsivity
Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked
impulsivity. Options A, B, and D are characteristic of narcissistic, avoidant, and
obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, respectively.
Question 2: A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed phenelzine.
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
A. Broiled beef
B. Fresh tuna
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Boiled potatoes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Cheddar cheese
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Clients taking MAOIs
must avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Aged cheeses like
cheddar are high in tyramine. The other options are generally safe to consume in
moderation.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering
to prevent delirium tremens?
,A. Naltrexone
B. Disulfiram
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Acamprosate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Chlordiazepoxide
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol
withdrawal symptoms and prevent progression to delirium tremens by reducing central
nervous system irritability. Naltrexone, disulfiram, and acamprosate are used for
maintenance and relapse prevention, not acute withdrawal.
Question 4: A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory
hallucinations. Which of the following nursing interventions is most
appropriate initially?
A. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
C. Encourage the client to listen to music to drown out the voices.
D. Isolate the client to reduce environmental stimuli.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to assess the content of the hallucinations to
determine if the client is at risk for harming themselves or others. Telling the client the
voices are not real denies their experience, and isolation is not a first-line intervention.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client for serotonin syndrome. Which of the
following findings is a primary indicator?
A. Hypothermia and bradycardia
B. Muscle flaccidity and hyporeflexia
C. Fever, diaphoresis, and clonus
D. Constipation and urinary retention
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fever, diaphoresis, and clonus
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized
by a triad of altered mental status, autonomic instability (fever, diaphoresis), and
neuromuscular abnormalities (clonus, hyperreflexia). The other options describe
symptoms of other conditions.
Question 6: A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. The
nurse should monitor the client for early signs of toxicity, which include:
A. Polyuria and polydipsia
B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
C. Muscle weakness and ataxia
D. Severe hypotension and bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
,Rationale: Early signs of lithium toxicity (serum level 1.5-2.0 mEq/L) include nausea,
vomiting, diarrhea, and fine hand tremors. Polyuria and polydipsia are common side
effects but not necessarily signs of toxicity. The other options indicate more severe
toxicity.
Question 7: A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder reports
having recurrent nightmares and flashbacks. The nurse recognizes these
symptoms as:
A. Avoidance behaviors
B. Hyperarousal symptoms
C. Intrusion symptoms
D. Negative alterations in cognition
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Intrusion symptoms
Rationale: Intrusion symptoms in PTSD include recurrent, involuntary, and distressing
memories, dreams, and flashbacks related to the traumatic event. Avoidance,
hyperarousal, and negative cognitive alterations are other distinct symptom clusters.
Question 8: A nurse is educating a client about the side effect of
extrapyramidal symptoms associated with antipsychotic medications. Which
of the following describes akathisia?
A. Involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures
B. A subjective feeling of motor restlessness and the urge to move
C. Protrusion and rolling of the tongue
D. Stiff, rigid muscles and a mask-like face
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A subjective feeling of motor restlessness and the urge
to move
Rationale: Akathisia is a common EPS characterized by an intense feeling of inner
restlessness and a compulsive need to move. Dystonia involves abnormal postures,
tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary oral-facial movements, and parkinsonism
involves rigidity and bradykinesia.
Question 9: A client with antisocial personality disorder is admitted to the
unit. Which of the following behaviors is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Extreme dependency and clinging behavior
B. Manipulative and deceitful behavior toward others
C. Intense fear of abandonment
D. Odd beliefs and magical thinking
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Manipulative and deceitful behavior toward others
Rationale: Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of
disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often involving manipulation,
, deceitfulness, and a lack of remorse. The other options are associated with dependent,
borderline, and schizotypal personality disorders.
Question 10: A nurse is providing care for a client with anorexia nervosa.
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention during the acute
phase of treatment?
A. Encouraging the client to make food choices independently
B. Supervising the client for 1 hour after meals
C. Allowing the client to exercise to reduce anxiety
D. Weighing the client daily with full disclosure of the weight
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Supervising the client for 1 hour after meals
Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa may engage in purging behaviors or excessive
exercise. Supervising the client for at least 1 hour after meals helps ensure they do not
purge and is a priority for maintaining physical safety.
Question 11: A client is taking fluoxetine. The nurse should instruct the client
to report which of the following adverse effects immediately?
A. Insomnia and mild nausea
B. Skin rash and itching
C. Headache and dry mouth
D. Sexual dysfunction
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Skin rash and itching
Rationale: A skin rash can be a sign of an allergic reaction, which can be serious. While
insomnia, nausea, headache, dry mouth, and sexual dysfunction are common side
effects of SSRIs, a rash should be reported immediately.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of
the following findings is an early manifestation of the disease?
A. Inability to swallow
B. Loss of the ability to walk
C. Difficulty finding the right words
D. Incontinence
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Difficulty finding the right words
Rationale: Early manifestations of Alzheimer's disease include mild cognitive
impairment such as difficulty with word-finding (anomia), short-term memory loss, and
problems with executive functioning. The other options are seen in later stages.
Question 13: A client has a new prescription for lamotrigine as a mood
stabilizer. The nurse should teach the client about which of the following
potentially serious adverse effects?
