WA L D E N U N I V E R S I T Y
Master of Science in Nursing (MSN)
NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology
Academic Year: 2026/2027
Final Exam · Question Bank
Question 1
A 7-year-old child who had a recent viral illness now presents with petechiae. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Hemophilia A
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. von Willebrand disease
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura
RATIONALE:
Acute ITP often follows a viral illness in children. It presents with sudden onset of petechiae,
bruising, and thrombocytopenia due to autoantibody-mediated platelet destruction.
, Question 2
Which statement is NOT true about tension-type headaches?
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
B. They are typically bilateral
C. They are often described as a band-like pressure
D. They are not associated with aura
CORRECT ANSWER:
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
RATIONALE:
Tension-type headaches are not associated with neurologic deficits. Focal neurologic
symptoms suggest a different type of headache, such as migraine with aura or other
intracranial pathology.
Question 3
What is the expected result of a progesterone withdrawal test in premature ovarian
failure?
A. No withdrawal bleeding.
B. Withdrawal bleeding within 3-7 days.
C. Heavy withdrawal bleeding.
D. Delayed withdrawal bleeding after 14 days.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. No withdrawal bleeding.
RATIONALE:
In premature ovarian failure, the ovaries do not produce sufficient estrogen to stimulate
endometrial growth. A progesterone challenge will not result in withdrawal bleeding
because the endometrium is thin due to low estrogen.
, Question 4
What condition is suggested by shuffling gait, resting tremor, rigidity, and
bradykinesia?
A. Parkinson disease
B. Huntington disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Wilson disease
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Parkinson disease
RATIONALE:
Parkinson's disease is characterized by the classic triad of resting tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia, and postural instability. Shuffling gait is a common feature.
Question 5
Which statement is NOT true about tension-type headaches?
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
B. They are often bilateral
C. They are described as a pressing or tightening quality
D. They are not aggravated by routine physical activity
CORRECT ANSWER:
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
RATIONALE:
Tension-type headaches lack neurologic deficits. The presence of weakness or numbness
should prompt evaluation for other causes such as migraine, TIA, or intracranial pathology.
, Question 6
What type of stroke is most likely caused by atrial fibrillation with a left atrial
thrombus?
A. Embolic stroke
B. Thrombotic stroke
C. Lacunar stroke
D. Hemorrhagic stroke
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Embolic stroke
RATIONALE:
Atrial fibrillation predisposes to thrombus formation in the left atrium, particularly in the left
atrial appendage. Embolization of this thrombus can cause an embolic stroke.
Question 7
What condition is most consistent with low mood most of the day for 2 years?
A. Persistent depressive disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Cyclothymia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Persistent depressive disorder
RATIONALE:
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is characterized by a depressed mood for most of
the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years in adults.
Master of Science in Nursing (MSN)
NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology
Academic Year: 2026/2027
Final Exam · Question Bank
Question 1
A 7-year-old child who had a recent viral illness now presents with petechiae. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Hemophilia A
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. von Willebrand disease
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura
RATIONALE:
Acute ITP often follows a viral illness in children. It presents with sudden onset of petechiae,
bruising, and thrombocytopenia due to autoantibody-mediated platelet destruction.
, Question 2
Which statement is NOT true about tension-type headaches?
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
B. They are typically bilateral
C. They are often described as a band-like pressure
D. They are not associated with aura
CORRECT ANSWER:
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
RATIONALE:
Tension-type headaches are not associated with neurologic deficits. Focal neurologic
symptoms suggest a different type of headache, such as migraine with aura or other
intracranial pathology.
Question 3
What is the expected result of a progesterone withdrawal test in premature ovarian
failure?
A. No withdrawal bleeding.
B. Withdrawal bleeding within 3-7 days.
C. Heavy withdrawal bleeding.
D. Delayed withdrawal bleeding after 14 days.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. No withdrawal bleeding.
RATIONALE:
In premature ovarian failure, the ovaries do not produce sufficient estrogen to stimulate
endometrial growth. A progesterone challenge will not result in withdrawal bleeding
because the endometrium is thin due to low estrogen.
, Question 4
What condition is suggested by shuffling gait, resting tremor, rigidity, and
bradykinesia?
A. Parkinson disease
B. Huntington disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Wilson disease
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Parkinson disease
RATIONALE:
Parkinson's disease is characterized by the classic triad of resting tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia, and postural instability. Shuffling gait is a common feature.
Question 5
Which statement is NOT true about tension-type headaches?
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
B. They are often bilateral
C. They are described as a pressing or tightening quality
D. They are not aggravated by routine physical activity
CORRECT ANSWER:
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
RATIONALE:
Tension-type headaches lack neurologic deficits. The presence of weakness or numbness
should prompt evaluation for other causes such as migraine, TIA, or intracranial pathology.
, Question 6
What type of stroke is most likely caused by atrial fibrillation with a left atrial
thrombus?
A. Embolic stroke
B. Thrombotic stroke
C. Lacunar stroke
D. Hemorrhagic stroke
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Embolic stroke
RATIONALE:
Atrial fibrillation predisposes to thrombus formation in the left atrium, particularly in the left
atrial appendage. Embolization of this thrombus can cause an embolic stroke.
Question 7
What condition is most consistent with low mood most of the day for 2 years?
A. Persistent depressive disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Cyclothymia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Persistent depressive disorder
RATIONALE:
Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is characterized by a depressed mood for most of
the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years in adults.
