Cje Readiness Exam / Approved Cje
Readiness Ii Exam Actual Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
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1. A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the
nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client who is two days postoperative and requesting assistance to
ambulate
C. A client with COPD who has new-onset confusion and an oxygen
saturation of 84%
D. A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 168 mg/dL
Answer: C. A client with COPD who has new-onset confusion and an
oxygen saturation of 84%
Rationale: New-onset confusion combined with severe hypoxemia
indicates an immediate threat to oxygenation. Airway, breathing, and
circulation problems take priority over pain, routine mobility
assistance, or a moderately elevated glucose level.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops facial
drooping, slurred speech, and weakness of the right arm. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Determine the time the symptoms began and activate the stroke
response
,B. Give the client oral fluids
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D. Encourage the client to walk to assess gait
Answer: A. Determine the time the symptoms began and activate the
stroke response
Rationale: Acute neurologic deficits suggest a possible stroke.
Determining the last-known-well time is essential because time-
sensitive interventions may be available. The stroke response should be
activated immediately rather than delaying for nonessential
assessments.
3. A client receiving an opioid analgesic becomes difficult to arouse
and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory depression. The nurse should simultaneously
support the airway and breathing and closely monitor the client
because repeated doses may be required.
4. Which finding in a client with heart failure requires the most
immediate intervention?
A. Mild bilateral ankle edema at the end of the day
B. Weight gain of 1 lb over one week
,C. Fatigue after climbing stairs
D. Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum
Answer: D. Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum is strongly
suggestive of acute pulmonary edema. This represents impaired
oxygenation and can rapidly become life-threatening, requiring
immediate assessment and intervention.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which action best
reduces the risk of medication error?
A. Compare the medication with the prescription at multiple points
during the medication process
B. Prepare all medications for the entire shift at one time
C. Ask another client whether the medication looks familiar
D. Document the medication before administering it
Answer: A. Compare the medication with the prescription at
multiple points during the medication process
Rationale: Medication verification should occur according to
institutional safety procedures, including comparison with the
medication order and appropriate client identification. Preparing
medications far in advance increases the possibility of confusion or
contamination.
6. A client with dysphagia is prescribed oral medication. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Place the client flat immediately after swallowing
B. Give all medications together in a large amount of water
C. Assess swallowing ability and administer medications using the
, prescribed safe method
D. Crush every medication automatically
Answer: C. Assess swallowing ability and administer medications
using the prescribed safe method
Rationale: Dysphagia increases aspiration risk. The nurse should
assess swallowing and follow medication-specific instructions because
some medications must not be crushed or altered.
7. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
low back pain shortly after the transfusion begins. What is the
nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Flush the blood tubing with additional blood
Answer: B. Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain may indicate a serious
transfusion reaction. The transfusion must be stopped immediately,
and the client should be assessed and managed according to the
facility's transfusion-reaction protocol.
8. Which client should the nurse assign to an experienced registered
nurse rather than an assistive personnel?
A. A stable client needing assistance with bathing
B. A client requiring routine linen changes
C. A stable client needing assistance with feeding
D. A client with newly worsening respiratory distress
Answer: D. A client with newly worsening respiratory distress
Readiness Ii Exam Actual Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf
1. A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the
nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client who is two days postoperative and requesting assistance to
ambulate
C. A client with COPD who has new-onset confusion and an oxygen
saturation of 84%
D. A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 168 mg/dL
Answer: C. A client with COPD who has new-onset confusion and an
oxygen saturation of 84%
Rationale: New-onset confusion combined with severe hypoxemia
indicates an immediate threat to oxygenation. Airway, breathing, and
circulation problems take priority over pain, routine mobility
assistance, or a moderately elevated glucose level.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops facial
drooping, slurred speech, and weakness of the right arm. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Determine the time the symptoms began and activate the stroke
response
,B. Give the client oral fluids
C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D. Encourage the client to walk to assess gait
Answer: A. Determine the time the symptoms began and activate the
stroke response
Rationale: Acute neurologic deficits suggest a possible stroke.
Determining the last-known-well time is essential because time-
sensitive interventions may be available. The stroke response should be
activated immediately rather than delaying for nonessential
assessments.
3. A client receiving an opioid analgesic becomes difficult to arouse
and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-
induced respiratory depression. The nurse should simultaneously
support the airway and breathing and closely monitor the client
because repeated doses may be required.
4. Which finding in a client with heart failure requires the most
immediate intervention?
A. Mild bilateral ankle edema at the end of the day
B. Weight gain of 1 lb over one week
,C. Fatigue after climbing stairs
D. Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum
Answer: D. Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum
Rationale: Severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum is strongly
suggestive of acute pulmonary edema. This represents impaired
oxygenation and can rapidly become life-threatening, requiring
immediate assessment and intervention.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which action best
reduces the risk of medication error?
A. Compare the medication with the prescription at multiple points
during the medication process
B. Prepare all medications for the entire shift at one time
C. Ask another client whether the medication looks familiar
D. Document the medication before administering it
Answer: A. Compare the medication with the prescription at
multiple points during the medication process
Rationale: Medication verification should occur according to
institutional safety procedures, including comparison with the
medication order and appropriate client identification. Preparing
medications far in advance increases the possibility of confusion or
contamination.
6. A client with dysphagia is prescribed oral medication. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Place the client flat immediately after swallowing
B. Give all medications together in a large amount of water
C. Assess swallowing ability and administer medications using the
, prescribed safe method
D. Crush every medication automatically
Answer: C. Assess swallowing ability and administer medications
using the prescribed safe method
Rationale: Dysphagia increases aspiration risk. The nurse should
assess swallowing and follow medication-specific instructions because
some medications must not be crushed or altered.
7. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
low back pain shortly after the transfusion begins. What is the
nurse's first action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Flush the blood tubing with additional blood
Answer: B. Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain may indicate a serious
transfusion reaction. The transfusion must be stopped immediately,
and the client should be assessed and managed according to the
facility's transfusion-reaction protocol.
8. Which client should the nurse assign to an experienced registered
nurse rather than an assistive personnel?
A. A stable client needing assistance with bathing
B. A client requiring routine linen changes
C. A stable client needing assistance with feeding
D. A client with newly worsening respiratory distress
Answer: D. A client with newly worsening respiratory distress
