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GCN|NSG 3100 Exam 3 | Diagnostic Testing, Elimination & Procedures | Galen College | Latest 26/27 (PDF)

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — Verified NSG 3100 Exam 3 | Diagnostic Testing, Elimination & Procedures | Galen College of Nursing | Latest Edition (PDF) resource featuring complete exam questions, NGN‑style case studies, and expert rationales. Coverage includes diagnostic testing protocols, elimination processes, urinary and bowel procedures, specimen collection, lab interpretation, safe patient preparation, pharmacology integration, and post‑procedure care. Emphasis on NCLEX‑style preparation, evidence‑based practice, and advanced clinical reasoning ensures exam readiness. Designed for guaranteed 100% correctness and alignment with Galen College curriculum, this study guide is ideal for students searching NSG 3100 Exam 3 PDF, Diagnostic Testing Nursing Study Guide, NSG 3100 Test Bank, NSG 3100 Verified Answers, NSG 3100 Exam Prep, ATI‑Style Nursing Practice, and NCLEX‑Style Nursing Workbook.

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,GCN|NSG 3100 Exam 3 | Diagnostic Testing, Elimination &
1. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a diagnostic procedure. The client asks, “Why do I need
to fast before this test?” Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

A) “Fasting prevents nausea and vomiting during the procedure.”

B) “Fasting ensures that the test results are not affected by recent food intake.”

C) “Fasting is required to keep you from having an allergic reaction.”

D) “Fasting allows the healthcare provider to see your organs more clearly.”



Correct Answer: “Fasting ensures that the test results are not affected by recent food intake.”



Rationale: Fasting is required for many diagnostic tests to prevent food from altering the results (e.g.,
glucose, lipid panels, or certain imaging studies). It is not primarily to prevent nausea, allergic
reactions, or to improve visualization, though those may be secondary considerations for some
procedures.



2. A nurse is preparing a client for a diagnostic test that requires the use of contrast media. Which
assessment is the priority before administering the contrast?

A) The client's blood pressure

B) The client's history of allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish

C) The client's current pain level

D) The client's food preferences for after the test



Correct Answer: The client's history of allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish



Rationale: Contrast media can cause severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. A history of
allergies to iodine or shellfish is a key contraindication or requires premedication. While blood
pressure and pain are important, allergy assessment is the priority for safety.



3. A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which hemoglobin level is within the normal range
for an adult male?

A) 10 g/dL

,B) 14 g/dL

C) 18 g/dL

D) 20 g/dL



Correct Answer: 14 g/dL



Rationale: Normal hemoglobin for an adult male is 14–18 g/dL. A level of 14 g/dL falls within this
range. 10 g/dL is below normal and indicates anemia. 18 g/dL is at the upper limit but still within
normal range; however, 14 g/dL is the most clearly normal value.



4. A nurse is reviewing a female client's laboratory results. Which hematocrit value is within the
normal range for an adult female?

A) 35%

B) 40%

C) 45%

D) 50%



Correct Answer: 40%



Rationale: Normal hematocrit for an adult female is 37–47%. A value of 40% falls within this range.
35% is below normal and may indicate anemia. 45% is within the normal range as well, but 40% is the
clearest mid-range normal value.



5. A nurse is reviewing a client's complete blood count. Which platelet count would indicate a critical
level requiring immediate intervention?

A) 150,000

B) 100,000

C) 50,000

D) 8,000



Correct Answer: 8,000

, Rationale: Normal platelet count is 150,000–400,000. A platelet count below 10,000 is critical and
places the client at significant risk for spontaneous bleeding. 150,000 is the lower limit of normal.
100,000 and 50,000 are below normal but not immediately critical.



6. A client's laboratory results show a BUN of 28 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. Which
interpretation by the nurse is most accurate?

A) The client has normal kidney function

B) The client has acute kidney injury

C) The client may be dehydrated

D) The client has liver failure



Correct Answer: The client may be dehydrated



Rationale: Normal BUN is 10–20 mg/dL. A BUN of 28 mg/dL is elevated, which may indicate
dehydration, high protein intake, or kidney dysfunction. The creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL is within normal
range. Elevated BUN with normal creatinine is suggestive of prerenal azotemia, often due to
dehydration.



7. A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which finding would indicate a need for further
liver function evaluation?

A) Sodium 140 mEq/L

B) Albumin 3.0 g/dL

C) Glucose 95 mg/dL

D) Potassium 4.0 mEq/L



Correct Answer: Albumin 3.0 g/dL



Rationale: Normal albumin is 3.5–5.0 g/dL. A value of 3.0 g/dL is below normal and may indicate liver
disease, malnutrition, or protein loss. Sodium, glucose, and potassium are within normal limits.

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