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NR547 CEA WEEK 2 EXAM 2026 COMPLETE (120)
CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR547
Prepare confidently for the NR547 CEA Week 2 Exam with this comprehensive study
resource. This PDF reviews essential course concepts, clinical principles, and key
topics commonly assessed during the Week 2 evaluation. It is ideal for self-study,
course revision, and reinforcing critical knowledge before the exam. A valuable
resource for students seeking to strengthen their understanding and improve their
readiness for the NR547 CEA Week 2 Exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION A: PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT AND DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
(Questions 1-20)
1. A 28-year-old male presents following a motor vehicle accident 20
minutes prior. He states that it was just a "fender bender," but he feels he
might have whiplash. His neck is stiff and sore, and he has developed
numbness and tingling on the medial surface of his right arm and into his
right fourth and fifth digits. On physical examination, his bicep strength is
+5/5 on the left and +5/5 on the right. His biceps tendon reflex is 2+ on the
left and 2+ on the right. His triceps tendon reflex is 2+ on the left and 2+ on
the right. His grip strength on the right is diminished as compared to the
left. What cervical nerve root is most likely affected?
A) C4
B) C5
C) C6
D) C7
E) C8
Correct Answer: E (C8)
Rationale: Impingement of the C8 nerve root causes numbness and tingling
primarily on the medial surface of the arm and into the lateral hand into the
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fourth and fifth digits. C8 also innervates the small hand muscles, explaining
the diminished grip strength on the right . C4 impingement causes neck and
upper shoulder numbness; C5 causes deltoid/shoulder numbness and
diminished biceps reflex; C6 causes numbness down the arm into the thumb
with bicep weakness; C7 causes numbness into the middle finger with
diminished triceps reflex .
2. A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of high fever,
progressive severe headaches, blurred vision, and increasing confusion.
He is normally healthy with no remarkable PMH. He appears ill and
disoriented. Pupils are equal and reactive. Cranial nerves are intact. CSF
analysis shows increased pressure, pleocytosis, red blood cells, and
increased protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Tuberculosis meningitis
C) Herpes simplex virus encephalitis
D) Primary CNS lymphoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HSV encephalitis occurs in approximately 10% of all encephalitis
cases in the United States. Classic presentation includes fever, severe
headache, altered mental status, and CSF findings of increased pressure,
pleocytosis, RBCs (reflecting hemorrhagic nature of CNS lesions), and
increased protein . HSV type 1 is the most common cause; type 2 causes
neonatal encephalitis. MRI findings would support the diagnosis .
3. A 75-year-old African-American man with severe uncontrolled
hypertension is brought to the ED with a 30-minute history of change in
mental status. He developed a progressive headache with nausea,
vomiting, and unilateral upper and lower extremity numbness. Blood
pressure is 185/108 mm Hg with nuchal rigidity. Neuro exam shows
contralateral sensory loss, contralateral hemiparesis, gaze paresis,
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homonymous hemianopia, and miosis. CT without contrast is performed.
What medication would be most appropriate?
A) Heparin
B) Dobutamine
C) Nicardipine
D) Pyrimethamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is experiencing an intracerebral hemorrhage with
underlying hypertension as a major contributory etiology. Antihypertensive
agents reduce blood pressure to prevent exacerbation of intracerebral
hemorrhage. Pressure should be cautiously lowered to a mean arterial
pressure (MAP) less than 130 mm Hg. Nicardipine is a calcium channel
blocker with potent rapid onset, ease of titration, and lack of toxic
metabolites . Blood-thinning agents should be avoided. Dobutamine is a
sympathomimetic agent that would worsen tachycardia and
vasoconstriction .
4. How long should effective pharmacotherapy be continued for panic
disorder before attempting to discontinue the medication?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years
Correct Answer: C (1 year)
Rationale: Guidelines recommend continuing effective pharmacotherapy for
panic disorder for at least one year before attempting to discontinue the
medication. Premature discontinuation increases the risk of relapse .
5. What side effects of serotonergic reuptake inhibitors are often
observed within the first few days of starting the medication?
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A) Sedation and weight gain
B) Agitation and insomnia
C) Nausea and diarrhea
D) Headache and dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Agitation and insomnia are common side effects observed within
the first few days of initiating serotonergic reuptake inhibitors. These
symptoms often subside as the patient adjusts to the medication .
6. Which statement best describes the role that genetics play in the
development of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and related
disorders?
A) Environmental factors completely override genetic predisposition
B) Genetics play no role in OCD development
C) Having a first-degree relative with OCD increases the risk of developing
OCD
D) OCD is caused by a single gene mutation inherited from both parents
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Numerous studies demonstrate that genetics contribute
significantly to the risk of developing OCD. Having a first-degree relative with
OCD increases the risk of developing the disorder. OCD is not caused by a
single gene mutation but rather involves complex genetic and environmental
interactions .
7. How long must the fear or anxiety of a specific stimulus occur before it
can be diagnosed as a specific phobia?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
NR547 CEA WEEK 2 EXAM 2026 COMPLETE (120)
CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NR547
Prepare confidently for the NR547 CEA Week 2 Exam with this comprehensive study
resource. This PDF reviews essential course concepts, clinical principles, and key
topics commonly assessed during the Week 2 evaluation. It is ideal for self-study,
course revision, and reinforcing critical knowledge before the exam. A valuable
resource for students seeking to strengthen their understanding and improve their
readiness for the NR547 CEA Week 2 Exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION A: PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT AND DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS
(Questions 1-20)
1. A 28-year-old male presents following a motor vehicle accident 20
minutes prior. He states that it was just a "fender bender," but he feels he
might have whiplash. His neck is stiff and sore, and he has developed
numbness and tingling on the medial surface of his right arm and into his
right fourth and fifth digits. On physical examination, his bicep strength is
+5/5 on the left and +5/5 on the right. His biceps tendon reflex is 2+ on the
left and 2+ on the right. His triceps tendon reflex is 2+ on the left and 2+ on
the right. His grip strength on the right is diminished as compared to the
left. What cervical nerve root is most likely affected?
A) C4
B) C5
C) C6
D) C7
E) C8
Correct Answer: E (C8)
Rationale: Impingement of the C8 nerve root causes numbness and tingling
primarily on the medial surface of the arm and into the lateral hand into the
, Page 2 of 49
fourth and fifth digits. C8 also innervates the small hand muscles, explaining
the diminished grip strength on the right . C4 impingement causes neck and
upper shoulder numbness; C5 causes deltoid/shoulder numbness and
diminished biceps reflex; C6 causes numbness down the arm into the thumb
with bicep weakness; C7 causes numbness into the middle finger with
diminished triceps reflex .
2. A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of high fever,
progressive severe headaches, blurred vision, and increasing confusion.
He is normally healthy with no remarkable PMH. He appears ill and
disoriented. Pupils are equal and reactive. Cranial nerves are intact. CSF
analysis shows increased pressure, pleocytosis, red blood cells, and
increased protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Tuberculosis meningitis
C) Herpes simplex virus encephalitis
D) Primary CNS lymphoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HSV encephalitis occurs in approximately 10% of all encephalitis
cases in the United States. Classic presentation includes fever, severe
headache, altered mental status, and CSF findings of increased pressure,
pleocytosis, RBCs (reflecting hemorrhagic nature of CNS lesions), and
increased protein . HSV type 1 is the most common cause; type 2 causes
neonatal encephalitis. MRI findings would support the diagnosis .
3. A 75-year-old African-American man with severe uncontrolled
hypertension is brought to the ED with a 30-minute history of change in
mental status. He developed a progressive headache with nausea,
vomiting, and unilateral upper and lower extremity numbness. Blood
pressure is 185/108 mm Hg with nuchal rigidity. Neuro exam shows
contralateral sensory loss, contralateral hemiparesis, gaze paresis,
, Page 3 of 49
homonymous hemianopia, and miosis. CT without contrast is performed.
What medication would be most appropriate?
A) Heparin
B) Dobutamine
C) Nicardipine
D) Pyrimethamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is experiencing an intracerebral hemorrhage with
underlying hypertension as a major contributory etiology. Antihypertensive
agents reduce blood pressure to prevent exacerbation of intracerebral
hemorrhage. Pressure should be cautiously lowered to a mean arterial
pressure (MAP) less than 130 mm Hg. Nicardipine is a calcium channel
blocker with potent rapid onset, ease of titration, and lack of toxic
metabolites . Blood-thinning agents should be avoided. Dobutamine is a
sympathomimetic agent that would worsen tachycardia and
vasoconstriction .
4. How long should effective pharmacotherapy be continued for panic
disorder before attempting to discontinue the medication?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years
Correct Answer: C (1 year)
Rationale: Guidelines recommend continuing effective pharmacotherapy for
panic disorder for at least one year before attempting to discontinue the
medication. Premature discontinuation increases the risk of relapse .
5. What side effects of serotonergic reuptake inhibitors are often
observed within the first few days of starting the medication?
, Page 4 of 49
A) Sedation and weight gain
B) Agitation and insomnia
C) Nausea and diarrhea
D) Headache and dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Agitation and insomnia are common side effects observed within
the first few days of initiating serotonergic reuptake inhibitors. These
symptoms often subside as the patient adjusts to the medication .
6. Which statement best describes the role that genetics play in the
development of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and related
disorders?
A) Environmental factors completely override genetic predisposition
B) Genetics play no role in OCD development
C) Having a first-degree relative with OCD increases the risk of developing
OCD
D) OCD is caused by a single gene mutation inherited from both parents
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Numerous studies demonstrate that genetics contribute
significantly to the risk of developing OCD. Having a first-degree relative with
OCD increases the risk of developing the disorder. OCD is not caused by a
single gene mutation but rather involves complex genetic and environmental
interactions .
7. How long must the fear or anxiety of a specific stimulus occur before it
can be diagnosed as a specific phobia?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
