NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/2027
UPDATE |UTA
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 65-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with chronic cough and
dyspnea. Spirometry reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which of the following confirms the
diagnosis of COPD?
A. Total lung capacity > 120% of predicted
B. Improvement in FEV1 by 12% after albuterol
C. Presence of hyperinflation on chest X-ray
D. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70
Answer: D
Rationale: According to the GOLD criteria, a persistent post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <. This is
important because the nurse must choose the action that keeps the client safest while still meeting
their basic needs. Always think about safety first when answering these questions. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client.
2. A 28-year-old female with persistent asthma is using a SABA four times a week. Which of
the following is the preferred Step 2 maintenance therapy?
A. Daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
B. High-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
C. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) monotherapy
D. Theophylline
Answer: A
Rationale: For patients with mild persistent asthma (Step 2), the preferred daily controller medication
is a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and
simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. Which physical exam finding is most consistent with a large pleural effusion?
A. Increased tactile fremitus and hyperresonance
B. Decreased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion
C. Vesicular breath sounds and resonant percussion
D. Wheezing and increased vocal resonance
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluid in the pleural space acts as a barrier to sound transmission (decreased fremitus) and
produces a dull sound on percussion. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier
to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the
priority need. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for
the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
4. A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 3. What is the
most appropriate management plan?
A. Outpatient treatment with oral azithromycin
B. Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin
C. Inpatient admission for management
D. Home observation without antibiotics
Answer: C
Rationale: A CURB-65 score of 3 or higher indicates a high risk of mortality and requires inpatient
hospitalization for management. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action
when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk
level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions
appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/2027
UPDATE |UTA
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 65-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with chronic cough and
dyspnea. Spirometry reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which of the following confirms the
diagnosis of COPD?
A. Total lung capacity > 120% of predicted
B. Improvement in FEV1 by 12% after albuterol
C. Presence of hyperinflation on chest X-ray
D. Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70
Answer: D
Rationale: According to the GOLD criteria, a persistent post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <. This is
important because the nurse must choose the action that keeps the client safest while still meeting
their basic needs. Always think about safety first when answering these questions. Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client.
2. A 28-year-old female with persistent asthma is using a SABA four times a week. Which of
the following is the preferred Step 2 maintenance therapy?
A. Daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
B. High-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
C. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) monotherapy
D. Theophylline
Answer: A
Rationale: For patients with mild persistent asthma (Step 2), the preferred daily controller medication
is a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and
simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NURS 5432 FNP I Final Exam (Modules 7-10) 2026/20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. Which physical exam finding is most consistent with a large pleural effusion?
A. Increased tactile fremitus and hyperresonance
B. Decreased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion
C. Vesicular breath sounds and resonant percussion
D. Wheezing and increased vocal resonance
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluid in the pleural space acts as a barrier to sound transmission (decreased fremitus) and
produces a dull sound on percussion. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier
to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the
priority need. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for
the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
4. A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 3. What is the
most appropriate management plan?
A. Outpatient treatment with oral azithromycin
B. Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin
C. Inpatient admission for management
D. Home observation without antibiotics
Answer: C
Rationale: A CURB-65 score of 3 or higher indicates a high risk of mortality and requires inpatient
hospitalization for management. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action
when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk
level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions
appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
