NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III N… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III NP Prep
2026/2027 UPDATE WPU
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III N… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of HFrEF (LVEF 30%) presents with increased dyspnea
and peripheral edema. He is currently on Lisinopril 20mg and Metoprolol Succinate 50mg.
What is the most appropriate next step to optimize Guideline-Directed Medical Therapy
(GDMT)?
A. Add Diltiazem to control heart rate
B. Increase Metoprolol Succinate to 100mg immediately
C. Switch Lisinopril to an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI)
D. Initiate Verapamil for symptom control
Answer: C
Rationale: For patients with HFrEF who remain symptomatic on ACE inhibitors, switching to an ARNI
(like Sacubitril/Valsartan) is recommended to further reduce morbidity and mortality. CCBs like
Diltiazem and Verapamil are generally avoided in HFrEF. This knowledge supports safe care and
helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation
and reduces anxiety. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe
choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
2. When managing a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
categorized as Group D according to GOLD criteria, which treatment regimen is most
appropriate?
A. SABA as needed only
B. LAMA monotherapy
C. Oral corticosteroids for daily maintenance
D. categorized as Group D according to GOLD criteria, which treatment regimen is most appropriate?
Answer: D
Rationale: GOLD Group D patients have high symptom burden and high risk of exacerbations. Dual
bronchodilation (LAMA+LABA) is preferred, though LABA+ICS may be considered if blood eosinophil
counts are elevated. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from harm.
Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. In practice, this guides the nurse to
set priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent
priorities.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III N… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. An 82-year-old female presents with confusion and a suspected urinary tract infection.
According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medications should be avoided in
this patient due to its high anticholinergic profile?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Cephalexin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Diphenhydramine
Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is listed in the Beers Criteria as a medication to avoid in the elderly due
to high anticholinergic effects, which increase the risk of confusion, falls, and urinary retention.
Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on
the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level. Clear understanding of this
concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short
case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
4. In the management of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, which medication class is specifically
recommended for patients with established Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease
(ASCVD) to reduce major adverse cardiovascular events?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. DPP-4 Inhibitors
C. GLP-1 Receptor Agonists
D. to reduce major adverse cardiovascular events?
Answer: C
Rationale: GLP-1 receptor agonists (like Liraglutide or Semaglutide) have proven cardiovascular
benefits and are recommended for patients with established ASCVD. This is important because the
nurse must choose the action that keeps the client safest while still meeting their basic needs. Always
think about safety first when answering these questions. In practice, this guides the nurse to set
priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent
priorities.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III NP Prep
2026/2027 UPDATE WPU
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III N… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of HFrEF (LVEF 30%) presents with increased dyspnea
and peripheral edema. He is currently on Lisinopril 20mg and Metoprolol Succinate 50mg.
What is the most appropriate next step to optimize Guideline-Directed Medical Therapy
(GDMT)?
A. Add Diltiazem to control heart rate
B. Increase Metoprolol Succinate to 100mg immediately
C. Switch Lisinopril to an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI)
D. Initiate Verapamil for symptom control
Answer: C
Rationale: For patients with HFrEF who remain symptomatic on ACE inhibitors, switching to an ARNI
(like Sacubitril/Valsartan) is recommended to further reduce morbidity and mortality. CCBs like
Diltiazem and Verapamil are generally avoided in HFrEF. This knowledge supports safe care and
helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation
and reduces anxiety. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe
choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
2. When managing a patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
categorized as Group D according to GOLD criteria, which treatment regimen is most
appropriate?
A. SABA as needed only
B. LAMA monotherapy
C. Oral corticosteroids for daily maintenance
D. categorized as Group D according to GOLD criteria, which treatment regimen is most appropriate?
Answer: D
Rationale: GOLD Group D patients have high symptom burden and high risk of exacerbations. Dual
bronchodilation (LAMA+LABA) is preferred, though LABA+ICS may be considered if blood eosinophil
counts are elevated. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from harm.
Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. In practice, this guides the nurse to
set priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent
priorities.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 6130 Exam 3 - Advanced Practice Nursing III N… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. An 82-year-old female presents with confusion and a suspected urinary tract infection.
According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medications should be avoided in
this patient due to its high anticholinergic profile?
A. Nitrofurantoin
B. Cephalexin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Diphenhydramine
Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is listed in the Beers Criteria as a medication to avoid in the elderly due
to high anticholinergic effects, which increase the risk of confusion, falls, and urinary retention.
Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on
the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level. Clear understanding of this
concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short
case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
4. In the management of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, which medication class is specifically
recommended for patients with established Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease
(ASCVD) to reduce major adverse cardiovascular events?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. DPP-4 Inhibitors
C. GLP-1 Receptor Agonists
D. to reduce major adverse cardiovascular events?
Answer: C
Rationale: GLP-1 receptor agonists (like Liraglutide or Semaglutide) have proven cardiovascular
benefits and are recommended for patients with established ASCVD. This is important because the
nurse must choose the action that keeps the client safest while still meeting their basic needs. Always
think about safety first when answering these questions. In practice, this guides the nurse to set
priorities and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent
priorities.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
