NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III P… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III Prep
2026/2027 UPDATE WPU
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III P… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset of substernal chest pain radiating to the
left arm. His EKG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery
is most likely occluded?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Left main coronary artery
C. Left circumflex artery
D. Right coronary artery
Answer: D
Rationale: ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial
infarction, which is typically caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA). Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. Remembering this point will help you decide the best
nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current
condition and risk level.
2. A patient with chronic heart failure (HFrEF) is currently taking an ACE inhibitor and a beta-
blocker. Their blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, but they remain symptomatic (NYHA Class II).
Which medication should be added next to improve survival?
A. Amlodipine
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Answer: D
Rationale: Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are indicated for patients with HFrEF who
remain symptomatic despite optimal therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta- blockers to reduce
morbidity and mortality. Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and
everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Understanding this helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse.
Early action often prevents bigger complications for the client.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III P… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. In a patient presenting with suspected Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis), which of
the following is the most definitive diagnostic test?
A. C-reactive protein (CRP) level
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
C. Temporal artery biopsy
D. Head CT scan
Answer: C
Rationale: While ESR and CRP are sensitive screening tools, the temporal artery biopsy is the gold
standard for a definitive diagnosis of Giant Cell Arteritis. Exam questions often test whether you can
pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can
actually do right now. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe
choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
4. A 45-year-old female presents with a TSH of 12.5 mIU/L and a low Free T4. She has no
history of thyroid disease. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Recheck TSH in 6 months
B. Initiate Levothyroxine 25-50 mcg daily
C. Start Methimazole 10 mg daily
D. Order a thyroid ultrasound immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient has overt primary hypothyroidism (elevated TSH and low T4) and requires
hormone replacement therapy with Levothyroxine. Clear understanding of this concept improves both
test performance and everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock
the idea in place. Understanding this helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the
problem gets worse. Early action often prevents bigger complications for the client.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III Prep
2026/2027 UPDATE WPU
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III P… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset of substernal chest pain radiating to the
left arm. His EKG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery
is most likely occluded?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Left main coronary artery
C. Left circumflex artery
D. Right coronary artery
Answer: D
Rationale: ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial
infarction, which is typically caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA). Understanding this
helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often
prevents bigger complications for the client. Remembering this point will help you decide the best
nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current
condition and risk level.
2. A patient with chronic heart failure (HFrEF) is currently taking an ACE inhibitor and a beta-
blocker. Their blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, but they remain symptomatic (NYHA Class II).
Which medication should be added next to improve survival?
A. Amlodipine
B. Digoxin
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone
Answer: D
Rationale: Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone are indicated for patients with HFrEF who
remain symptomatic despite optimal therapy with ACE inhibitors and beta- blockers to reduce
morbidity and mortality. Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and
everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Understanding this helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse.
Early action often prevents bigger complications for the client.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 6130 Exam 2 - Advanced Practice Nursing III P… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. In a patient presenting with suspected Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis), which of
the following is the most definitive diagnostic test?
A. C-reactive protein (CRP) level
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
C. Temporal artery biopsy
D. Head CT scan
Answer: C
Rationale: While ESR and CRP are sensitive screening tools, the temporal artery biopsy is the gold
standard for a definitive diagnosis of Giant Cell Arteritis. Exam questions often test whether you can
pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can
actually do right now. Exam questions often test whether you can pick the most practical and safe
choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what the nurse can actually do right now.
4. A 45-year-old female presents with a TSH of 12.5 mIU/L and a low Free T4. She has no
history of thyroid disease. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Recheck TSH in 6 months
B. Initiate Levothyroxine 25-50 mcg daily
C. Start Methimazole 10 mg daily
D. Order a thyroid ultrasound immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient has overt primary hypothyroidism (elevated TSH and low T4) and requires
hormone replacement therapy with Levothyroxine. Clear understanding of this concept improves both
test performance and everyday clinical judgment. Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock
the idea in place. Understanding this helps the nurse notice early warning signs and act before the
problem gets worse. Early action often prevents bigger complications for the client.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
