NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2027
UPDATE Galen College
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is admitted. The nurse notes crackles in
the lung bases and an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Metoprolol
B. Spironolactone
C. Digoxin
D. Furosemide
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to rapidly reduce fluid overload in heart failure,
improving oxygenation by clearing pulmonary edema. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities
and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. This
knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear
teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed ventricular tachycardia (VT) on the
monitor. The patient is awake and complaining of palpitations. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Immediate defibrillation
B. Check the patient’s pulse and blood pressure
C. Begin chest compressions
D. Administer IV Epinephrine
Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is the priority. VT can occur with or without a pulse. The treatment plan
depends on whether the patient is stable, unstable, or pulseless. Remembering this point will help you
decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the
client’s current condition and risk level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing
action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and
risk level.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. A patient is admitted with suspected Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Which
clinical finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) > 18 mmHg
B. Hypoxemia that does not improve with increased oxygen concentration
C. Decreased respiratory rate and shallow breathing
D. Clear lung fields on a chest X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia, which is hypoxemia despite high levels of supplemental oxygen, is
a hallmark sign of ARDS. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from
harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. Understanding this helps the
nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often prevents
bigger complications for the client.
4. A patient in the oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) has a potassium level of 6.8
mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse monitor for?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Shortened PR interval
C. ST-segment elevation
D. Tall, peaked T waves
Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS, and
prolonged PR intervals. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when
similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical judgment.
Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2027
UPDATE Galen College
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is admitted. The nurse notes crackles in
the lung bases and an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Metoprolol
B. Spironolactone
C. Digoxin
D. Furosemide
Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to rapidly reduce fluid overload in heart failure,
improving oxygenation by clearing pulmonary edema. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities
and protect the client from harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. This
knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear
teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed ventricular tachycardia (VT) on the
monitor. The patient is awake and complaining of palpitations. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Immediate defibrillation
B. Check the patient’s pulse and blood pressure
C. Begin chest compressions
D. Administer IV Epinephrine
Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is the priority. VT can occur with or without a pulse. The treatment plan
depends on whether the patient is stable, unstable, or pulseless. Remembering this point will help you
decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the
client’s current condition and risk level. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing
action when similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and
risk level.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NUR 265 Exam 2 Comprehensive Practice Test 2026/2… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. A patient is admitted with suspected Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Which
clinical finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) > 18 mmHg
B. Hypoxemia that does not improve with increased oxygen concentration
C. Decreased respiratory rate and shallow breathing
D. Clear lung fields on a chest X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: Refractory hypoxemia, which is hypoxemia despite high levels of supplemental oxygen, is
a hallmark sign of ARDS. In practice, this guides the nurse to set priorities and protect the client from
harm. Safety, nutrition, and clear communication are frequent priorities. Understanding this helps the
nurse notice early warning signs and act before the problem gets worse. Early action often prevents
bigger complications for the client.
4. A patient in the oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) has a potassium level of 6.8
mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse monitor for?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Shortened PR interval
C. ST-segment elevation
D. Tall, peaked T waves
Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS, and
prolonged PR intervals. Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when
similar questions appear on the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level.
Clear understanding of this concept improves both test performance and everyday clinical judgment.
Practice applying it to short case scenarios to lock the idea in place.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
