NU 673 Exam 3 Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
1. The APRN is conducting a comprehensive psychiatric assessment on a new patient.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the evaluation process?
A. Order laboratory tests
B. Prescribe an antidepressant
C. Conduct a biopsychosocial assessment
D. Refer the patient to a therapist
Answer: C. Conduct a biopsychosocial assessment
Explanation: A comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment is the foundation of psychiatric
evaluation. This includes a thorough psychiatric history, mental status examination, and
assessment of biological, psychological, and social factors contributing to presenting
symptoms .
2. Which screening tool is most appropriate for evaluating a patient's risk of suicide?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. SAFE-T (Suicide Assessment Five-Step Evaluation and Triage)
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C. SAFE-T
Explanation: The SAFE-T is a structured approach to suicide risk assessment that identifies risk
factors, protective factors, and guides triage decisions. The PHQ-9 screens for depression, GAD-
7 screens for anxiety, and CAGE-AID screens for substance use .
3. A patient reports hearing voices that comment on their actions. This is an example of:
A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
,C. Delusion
D. Obsession
Answer: B. Hallucination
Explanation: Hallucinations are perceptual experiences that occur without an external stimulus.
Auditory hallucinations, such as voices commenting on behavior, are characteristic of psychotic
disorders .
4. A patient expresses the belief that the FBI is monitoring their thoughts through radio
waves. This is an example of:
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
D. Obsession
Answer: C. Delusion
Explanation: Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are not amenable to change despite
contradictory evidence. This patient's belief about FBI monitoring is a persecutory delusion, a
common feature of psychotic disorders .
5. Which of the following is a cardinal feature of the mental status examination?
A. Patient's medical history
B. Patient's family history
C. Patient's insight and judgment
D. Patient's social history
Answer: C. Patient's insight and judgment
Explanation: Insight (awareness of one's condition) and judgment (ability to make sound
decisions) are essential components of the MSE. They are critical for assessing capacity, safety,
and treatment adherence .
6. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
A. Appearance
B. Behavior
C. Laboratory results
D. Thought process
,Answer: C. Laboratory results
Explanation: Laboratory results are part of the physical workup, not the MSE. The MSE includes
appearance, behavior, speech, mood, affect, thought process, thought content, perception,
cognition, insight, and judgment .
7. A patient presents with anhedonia, psychomotor retardation, and excessive guilt. These
symptoms are most characteristic of:
A. Manic episode
B. Major depressive episode
C. Hypomanic episode
D. Panic disorder
Answer: B. Major depressive episode
Explanation: Anhedonia (loss of pleasure), psychomotor retardation, and excessive guilt are
core symptoms of major depressive episodes .
8. A patient presents with pressured speech, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and
engaging in risky behaviors. These symptoms are most consistent with:
A. Major depressive episode
B. Manic episode
C. Hypomanic episode
D. Mixed episode
Answer: B. Manic episode
Explanation: A manic episode is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and
persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, lasting at least one week, with symptoms
including grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and risky behaviors .
9. A patient's family history reveals a first-degree relative with bipolar disorder. This
increases the patient's risk for developing:
A. Major depressive disorder only
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
, Explanation: Family history of bipolar disorder increases the risk of bipolar disorder, major
depressive disorder, and schizophrenia due to shared genetic vulnerabilities .
10. A patient with a history of trauma presents with hypervigilance, exaggerated startle
response, and avoidance of reminders of the event. This presentation is most consistent
with:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Panic disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
Answer: B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation: PTSD is characterized by exposure to a traumatic event followed by intrusive
symptoms, avoidance of reminders, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations
in arousal and reactivity (hypervigilance, exaggerated startle) .
11. A patient reports recurrent episodes of intense fear accompanied by palpitations,
sweating, and shortness of breath that peak within minutes. These episodes occur
unexpectedly and are followed by persistent worry about having another episode. This
presentation is most consistent with:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Answer: B. Panic disorder
Explanation: Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by
at least one month of persistent concern about additional attacks or significant maladaptive
changes in behavior .
12. What is the primary purpose of assessing deep tendon reflexes in a clinical setting?
A. To measure muscle strength
B. To evaluate the integrity of the nervous system
C. To diagnose specific mental health conditions
D. To assess cognitive function
Answer: B. To evaluate the integrity of the nervous system
Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
1. The APRN is conducting a comprehensive psychiatric assessment on a new patient.
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the evaluation process?
A. Order laboratory tests
B. Prescribe an antidepressant
C. Conduct a biopsychosocial assessment
D. Refer the patient to a therapist
Answer: C. Conduct a biopsychosocial assessment
Explanation: A comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment is the foundation of psychiatric
evaluation. This includes a thorough psychiatric history, mental status examination, and
assessment of biological, psychological, and social factors contributing to presenting
symptoms .
2. Which screening tool is most appropriate for evaluating a patient's risk of suicide?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. SAFE-T (Suicide Assessment Five-Step Evaluation and Triage)
D. CAGE-AID
Answer: C. SAFE-T
Explanation: The SAFE-T is a structured approach to suicide risk assessment that identifies risk
factors, protective factors, and guides triage decisions. The PHQ-9 screens for depression, GAD-
7 screens for anxiety, and CAGE-AID screens for substance use .
3. A patient reports hearing voices that comment on their actions. This is an example of:
A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
,C. Delusion
D. Obsession
Answer: B. Hallucination
Explanation: Hallucinations are perceptual experiences that occur without an external stimulus.
Auditory hallucinations, such as voices commenting on behavior, are characteristic of psychotic
disorders .
4. A patient expresses the belief that the FBI is monitoring their thoughts through radio
waves. This is an example of:
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
D. Obsession
Answer: C. Delusion
Explanation: Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are not amenable to change despite
contradictory evidence. This patient's belief about FBI monitoring is a persecutory delusion, a
common feature of psychotic disorders .
5. Which of the following is a cardinal feature of the mental status examination?
A. Patient's medical history
B. Patient's family history
C. Patient's insight and judgment
D. Patient's social history
Answer: C. Patient's insight and judgment
Explanation: Insight (awareness of one's condition) and judgment (ability to make sound
decisions) are essential components of the MSE. They are critical for assessing capacity, safety,
and treatment adherence .
6. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Mental Status Examination (MSE)?
A. Appearance
B. Behavior
C. Laboratory results
D. Thought process
,Answer: C. Laboratory results
Explanation: Laboratory results are part of the physical workup, not the MSE. The MSE includes
appearance, behavior, speech, mood, affect, thought process, thought content, perception,
cognition, insight, and judgment .
7. A patient presents with anhedonia, psychomotor retardation, and excessive guilt. These
symptoms are most characteristic of:
A. Manic episode
B. Major depressive episode
C. Hypomanic episode
D. Panic disorder
Answer: B. Major depressive episode
Explanation: Anhedonia (loss of pleasure), psychomotor retardation, and excessive guilt are
core symptoms of major depressive episodes .
8. A patient presents with pressured speech, grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, and
engaging in risky behaviors. These symptoms are most consistent with:
A. Major depressive episode
B. Manic episode
C. Hypomanic episode
D. Mixed episode
Answer: B. Manic episode
Explanation: A manic episode is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and
persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, lasting at least one week, with symptoms
including grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and risky behaviors .
9. A patient's family history reveals a first-degree relative with bipolar disorder. This
increases the patient's risk for developing:
A. Major depressive disorder only
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
, Explanation: Family history of bipolar disorder increases the risk of bipolar disorder, major
depressive disorder, and schizophrenia due to shared genetic vulnerabilities .
10. A patient with a history of trauma presents with hypervigilance, exaggerated startle
response, and avoidance of reminders of the event. This presentation is most consistent
with:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Panic disorder
D. Social anxiety disorder
Answer: B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation: PTSD is characterized by exposure to a traumatic event followed by intrusive
symptoms, avoidance of reminders, negative alterations in cognition and mood, and alterations
in arousal and reactivity (hypervigilance, exaggerated startle) .
11. A patient reports recurrent episodes of intense fear accompanied by palpitations,
sweating, and shortness of breath that peak within minutes. These episodes occur
unexpectedly and are followed by persistent worry about having another episode. This
presentation is most consistent with:
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Specific phobia
Answer: B. Panic disorder
Explanation: Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks followed by
at least one month of persistent concern about additional attacks or significant maladaptive
changes in behavior .
12. What is the primary purpose of assessing deep tendon reflexes in a clinical setting?
A. To measure muscle strength
B. To evaluate the integrity of the nervous system
C. To diagnose specific mental health conditions
D. To assess cognitive function
Answer: B. To evaluate the integrity of the nervous system
