ANCC FNP
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,DIGITAL PDF STUDY PREVIEW
ANCC FNP BOARD-PREP - PART I
900+ PREP QS & REVIEW TERMS
Preview QUESTIONS Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
Explore carefully selected sample pages before purchasing the complete guide.
01 Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
02 Board-prep questions, review terms, and answer explanations
03 High-yield concepts across multiple clinical systems
04 Designed for structured study and final revision
Important
This file contains selected preview pages only. The complete digital PDF is provided after
purchase.
If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources, feel free to Message me.
STUDY SMARTER. REVIEW WITH CONFIDENCE.
Instant digital access - study on your preferred device
,12. A 45-year-old female patient complains of a sore throat. Upon examination, the NP
notices a bony growth midline at the hard palate of the mouth. The patient denies any
changes or pain. It is not red, tender, or swollen. She reports a history of the same
growth for many years without any change. Which of the following conditions is most
likely?
A. Torus palatinus
B. Geographic tongue
C. Acute glossitis
D. Leukoplakia
Correct A. Torus palatinus
Source Explanation: Best Clues The description of a chronic bony growth located midline in
the hard palate indicates torus palatinus. Rule out glossitis, geographic tongue, and hairy
leukoplakia because they are all located on the tongue and not on the hard palate (roof of the
mouth).
13. A torus palatinus is a
benign growth of bone (an exostosis) located midline on the hard palate and covered
with normal oral skin. It is painless and does not interfere with function.
14. A "geographic tongue" has
multiple fissures and irregular smoother areas on its surface that make it look like a
topographic map. The patient may complain of soreness on the tongue after eating or
drinking acidic or hot foods.
15. Leukoplakia is not
a benign variant. It appears as a slow-growing white plaque that has a firm to hard
surface that is slightly raised on the tongue or inside the mouth. It is considered a
precancerous lesion. It is due to chronic irritation of the skin or precancerous changes
on the tongue and inside the cheeks. Its causes include poorly fitting dentures,
chewing tobacco (snuff), and using other types of tobacco. Refer the patient for a
biopsy because it can sometimes become malignant.
16. Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) of the tongue is a
painless white patch (or patches) that appears corrugated. It is usually located on the
lateral aspects of the tongue (or other areas inside the mouth) and is associated with
HIV and AIDS infection. It is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection of the
tongue. It is not considered a premalignant lesion.
,40. Which of the following foods are known to have high potassium content? Low-fat
yogurt, soft cheeses, and collard greens Aged cheese, red wine, and chocolate Potatoes,
apricots, and Brussels sprouts Black beans, red meat, and citrus juice
• C. Potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts
Best Clues First, look at the answer options for inconsistencies in the list of foods.
Rule out option A because it is inconsistent and these foods do not contain high levels
of potassium: low-fat yogurt and soft cheeses (calcium) with collard greens (vitamin
K). Rule out option B because these foods have a high tyramine, not potassium,
content. Rule out option D because it is inconsistent. Although citrus juices are high in
potassium, both black beans and red meat are not (iron). If options A, B, and D are
incorrect, then the only one left is option C (potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts).
A large number of fruits and vegetables are rich in potassium and vitamins.
41. Diseases that are selected for case management are usually ____ conditions, such as
asthma, congestive heart failure (CHF), HIV infection, and chronic psychiatric conditions.
A good outcome will show ____ and ___ or ____.
chronic good symptom control no exacerbations hospitalizations
42. Danger Signals Cardiovascular System
Acute MI, unstable angina Heart failure Bacterial endocarditis Abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA)
43. Danger Signals Skin and Integumentary System
Angioedema/anaphylaxis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Meningococcemia Rocky
Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) Lyme disease Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
44. Danger Signals Gastrointestinal System
Acute abdomen (surgical abdomen) Acute appendicitis Acute pancreatitis Acute
diverticulitis Acute cholecystitis Clostridium difficile infection Colon cancer
45. Danger Signals Men’s Health
Testicular torsion Priapism Prostate cancer
46. Danger Signals Psychosocial Mental Health
Depression with suicidal plan Acute serotonin syndrome Malignant neuroleptic
syndrome
47. Danger Signals Nervous System
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Temporal arteritis headache Subarachnoid bleeding
Acute bacterial meningitis Subdural hematoma
,331. Primary Prevention (____)
Prevention of Disease or Injury/Eliminate or Reduce Risk Factors for an Illness
332. Secondary Prevention (___)
Early Detection of a Disease to Minimize Bodily Damage
333. Tertiary Prevention (___)
Reduce Impact of Disease or Injury/Rehabilitation/Support Groups/Equipment
334. Aged 50 to 59 years with ≥10% CVD risk: Initiate ___ use for primary prevention of
___ and __ cancer in patients who are not at increased risk for bleeding with life
expectancy of at least 10 years and who are willing to take low-dose aspirin daily for at
least 10 years
low-dose aspirin cardiovascular colorectal
335. Baseline mammogram: Start at age __ years and repeat every __ years until age __
years
50 2 74
336. The American Cancer Society recommends that women at highest risk of breast
cancer (i.e., those with BRCA gene) should obtain both breast MRI and mammogram ___,
typically starting at age __.
every year 30
337. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 20 years or younger
Do not screen (even if sexually active with multiple partners); cervical cancer is rare
before age 21 years
338. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 21–29 years
Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone
339. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 30–65 years
Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone, every 5 years with high-risk human
papillomavirus (hrHPV) testing alone, or every 5 years with hrHPV testing in
combination with cytology
340. Cervical Cancer Screening Prior hysterectomy with removal of cervix
If hysterectomy with cervical removal was not due to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
(CIN grade 2) or cervical cancer, stop screening
,439. The nurse practitioner reviewing the medications of a 72-year-old male notes the
that patient uses tiotropium-olodaterol (Stiolto Respimat) inhaled daily. The disease
process typically associated with this medication is: Chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) Asthma Bronchiectasis Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Tiotropium is a long-acting
antimuscarinic bronchodilator (LAMA), and olodaterol is a long-acting beta2 agonist
(LABA). Tiotropium–olodaterol is a LAMA/LABA combination of drugs prescribed to
treat a Gold B category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Asthma is
generally not treated with a LAMA/LABA drug. The prescribed pharmacological
treatment of bronchiectasis is focused on the infection. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
is treated with antifibrotics.
440. The nurse practitioner is reviewing the medications of a 72-year-old patient who
states, "Ever since I started these medications, my skin constantly feels itchy." Which
prescription will the nurse practitioner associate with the patient's condition?
Olmesartan (Benicar) 10 mg PO daily Venlafaxine (Effexor) 75 mg PO daily Metformin
(Glucophage) 500 mg PO BID Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) 25 mg PO daily
Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) 25 mg PO daily. Hydrochlorothiazide is a drug
commonly associated with systemic pruritis in the older adult. Olmesartan,
venlafaxine, and metformin are not commonly associated with systemic pruritis in the
older adult.
441. Which pharmacological treatments for hypertension will the nurse practitioner
consider safe to prescribe to an older adult with a history of a myocardial infarction?
Select all that apply. Diuretics Central adrenergic Alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonist Beta-
adrenoreceptor antagonist Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Diuretics, Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist and Angiotensinconverting enzyme. The
current recommendation for hypertension in the older adult with a history of
myocardial infarction is treatment with diuretics, a beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist,
and/or angiotensinconverting enzyme. Central adrenergic and alphaadrenoreceptor
antagonists are not recommended for treatment of hypertension for an older adult.
442. Which diuretic will the nurse practitioner add to the treatment plan for an adult
patient treated for hypertension with captopril (Capoten)? Amiloride (Midamor)
Spironolactone (Aldactone) Furosemide (Lasix) Triamterene (Dyrenium)
Furosemide (Lasix). A loop diuretic such as furosemide is safe to prescribe to an adult
to help treat hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics such as amiloride,
spironolactone, and triamterene should not be administered to patients receiving ACE
inhibitors due to the risk of hyperkalemia.
,520. 40.0% complete Question A new mother reports to you that her 6month-old infant
has a cold and a fever of 99.8°F. The infant is not irritable and is feeding well without
problems. The mother wants to know whether it is okay for him to be immunized at this
time. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The infant should not be immunized until he is afebrile
B. An infant with a cold can be immunized at any time
C. An infant with a cold can be immunized as long as the infant's temperature is n
Correct Solution: C
Source Explanation: An infant with a cold can be immunized as long as the infant’s
temperature is not higher than 100.4°F. It is fine for your child to get vaccinated, even if they
have a mild illness. A vaccine will not make a mild illness worse. A child can be vaccinated
even if they have a low-grade fever, a cold, runny nose, cough, otitis media, or mild diarrhea.
521. All of the following children are within the parameters of normal growth and
development for their age group, except:
A. A 2-month-old who coos and smiles
B. A 14-month-old who understands complex commands
C. A 20-month-old who can walk without support
D. A 3-year-old who can speak in three- to five-word sentences
Correct Solution: B
Source Explanation: A 14-month-old who understands complex commands. A 14-month-old
child should developmentally be able to say “mama” and “dada,” know their own name, and
know at least two to five words. A 2-year-old is able to understand simple commands.
,701. Remember what ____ vision means: Patient can see at 20 feet what a person with
normal vision can see at 60 feet.
20/60
702. ______ (similar to hydrogen peroxide) is one of the most common OTC treatments
for ceruminosis.
Carbamide peroxide
703. Recognize herpes keratitis; cause is either herpes simplex or varicella zoster
(shingles of trigeminal nerve ophthalmic branch). If herpes keratitis, refer to ___ or
ophthalmologist stat.
ED
704. Use fluorescein strips to check for ____ and ___. Do not pick "split lamp."
corneal abrasions keratitis
705. The nurse practitioner auscultates a child's heart and hears a musical sound, which
becomes louder in a supine position. This sound is most consistent with a:
A. Systolic murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. Continuous murmur
D. Still's murmur
Correct Solution: D
Source Explanation: Still’s murmur. A Still’s murmur is benign, occurs during childhood
years, and usually resolves by adolescence. Also called a functional murmur, it becomes
louder in a supine position or with a fever. There is minimal radiation, with a grade of I or II.
Systolic murmurs occur during S1, are louder than diastolic murmurs, and can radiate to the
neck or axillae. Diastolic murmurs always indicate heart disease, which is not likely in
children. Continuous murmurs occur throughout the complete cardiac cycle.
,798. _____: The skin area that is outside of the joint (e.g., front of knee, back of elbow)
Extensor
799. ____: The area of the skin on top of the joint with skin folds (e.g., back of knees,
antecubital space)
Flexor
800. _____: Skin flexures are body folds (eczema affects flexural folds)
Flexural
801. _____: An area where two skin areas touch or rub each other (e.g., axilla, breast skin
folds, anogenital area, between the fingers/digits)
Intertriginous
802. _____ rash: Rash with color (usually pink to red) with small bumps that are raised
above the skin (viral rashes)
Maculopapular
803. _____: Rash that resembles measles (pink rash with texture)
Morbilliform
804. ____: Coin-shaped, round (nummular eczema)
Nummular
805. ____: Bleeding into the skin; small bleeds are petechial (RMSF), and larger areas of
bleeding are ecchymoses or purpura (meningococcemia)
Purpura
806. ____: Shaped like a snake (larva migrans)
Serpiginous
807. ______: Wartlike
Verrucous
808. ____: Dry skin
Xerosis
809. The “A, B, C, D, E” of melanoma: A: ___ B: ____ C: ____ D: ____ E: ____
Asymmetry Border irregular Color varies in the same region Diameter >6 mm
Enlargement or change in size
, 989. A female adult patient presents with complaints of "bad burns" that are very painful.
A large pot of boiling water tipped over and spilled on her arms and her anterior chest
and abdomen. During the physical exam, the nurse practitioner notices brightred skin
with numerous bullae on the left arm and hand and large patches of bright-red skin on
the anterior chest and abdominal area. On a pain scale of 1 to 10, she reports the pain as
9. Her vital signs are stable with tachycardia (pulse is 100 beats/min). She does not
appear to be in shock. Using the rule of nines, what are the total body surface area
(TBSA) and the depth of the burns in this patient?
A. The patient has a TBSA of 15% with fullthickness burns of the left arm and left hand and
partial-thickness burns of the anterior chest and abdominal area
B. The patient has a TBSA of 20% with partialthickness burns on the left arm and left hand
and mild burns on
Correct The patient has a TBSA of 27% with partial-thickness burns on
Source Explanation: the left arm and left hand and superficial burns on the anterior chest
and abdominal area Using the rule of nines, the anterior thorax is 18% and the left arm/hand
is 9%, totaling 27%. A standard Lund–Browder (rule of nines) chart is readily available in
most emergency departments. A partial-thickness burn is the same as a second-degree burn.
A superficial burn is a first-degree burn.
990. An elderly male presents to the clinic for a routine examination. The nurse
practitioner notes multiple rough, scaly patches on the patient's forearms and face and
the back of his ears. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Senile purpura
C. Lentigines
D. Senile actinic keratosis
Correct Solution: D
Source Explanation: Senile actinic keratosis Actinic keratosis is considered the most
common precancerous lesion of squamous cell carcinoma in older adults. Actinic keratosis is
a rough, scaly patch on the skin that develops from years of exposure to the sun. It is most
commonly found on the face, lips, ears, back of the hands, forearms, scalp, or neck. Senile
purpura presents as bright, purple-colored patches located on the forearms and hands and
are benign. Lentigines, also known as “liver spots,” are browncolored macules located on the
hands and forearms of older adults and are benign. Seborrheic keratoses are soft, wartlike
benign lesions that frequently appear on the back and trunk of older adults.
Board-Prep Qs & Review Terms
900+ Prep Qs & Review Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of practice questions
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
,DIGITAL PDF STUDY PREVIEW
ANCC FNP BOARD-PREP - PART I
900+ PREP QS & REVIEW TERMS
Preview QUESTIONS Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
Explore carefully selected sample pages before purchasing the complete guide.
01 Focused ANCC FNP board-exam review
02 Board-prep questions, review terms, and answer explanations
03 High-yield concepts across multiple clinical systems
04 Designed for structured study and final revision
Important
This file contains selected preview pages only. The complete digital PDF is provided after
purchase.
If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources, feel free to Message me.
STUDY SMARTER. REVIEW WITH CONFIDENCE.
Instant digital access - study on your preferred device
,12. A 45-year-old female patient complains of a sore throat. Upon examination, the NP
notices a bony growth midline at the hard palate of the mouth. The patient denies any
changes or pain. It is not red, tender, or swollen. She reports a history of the same
growth for many years without any change. Which of the following conditions is most
likely?
A. Torus palatinus
B. Geographic tongue
C. Acute glossitis
D. Leukoplakia
Correct A. Torus palatinus
Source Explanation: Best Clues The description of a chronic bony growth located midline in
the hard palate indicates torus palatinus. Rule out glossitis, geographic tongue, and hairy
leukoplakia because they are all located on the tongue and not on the hard palate (roof of the
mouth).
13. A torus palatinus is a
benign growth of bone (an exostosis) located midline on the hard palate and covered
with normal oral skin. It is painless and does not interfere with function.
14. A "geographic tongue" has
multiple fissures and irregular smoother areas on its surface that make it look like a
topographic map. The patient may complain of soreness on the tongue after eating or
drinking acidic or hot foods.
15. Leukoplakia is not
a benign variant. It appears as a slow-growing white plaque that has a firm to hard
surface that is slightly raised on the tongue or inside the mouth. It is considered a
precancerous lesion. It is due to chronic irritation of the skin or precancerous changes
on the tongue and inside the cheeks. Its causes include poorly fitting dentures,
chewing tobacco (snuff), and using other types of tobacco. Refer the patient for a
biopsy because it can sometimes become malignant.
16. Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) of the tongue is a
painless white patch (or patches) that appears corrugated. It is usually located on the
lateral aspects of the tongue (or other areas inside the mouth) and is associated with
HIV and AIDS infection. It is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection of the
tongue. It is not considered a premalignant lesion.
,40. Which of the following foods are known to have high potassium content? Low-fat
yogurt, soft cheeses, and collard greens Aged cheese, red wine, and chocolate Potatoes,
apricots, and Brussels sprouts Black beans, red meat, and citrus juice
• C. Potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts
Best Clues First, look at the answer options for inconsistencies in the list of foods.
Rule out option A because it is inconsistent and these foods do not contain high levels
of potassium: low-fat yogurt and soft cheeses (calcium) with collard greens (vitamin
K). Rule out option B because these foods have a high tyramine, not potassium,
content. Rule out option D because it is inconsistent. Although citrus juices are high in
potassium, both black beans and red meat are not (iron). If options A, B, and D are
incorrect, then the only one left is option C (potatoes, apricots, and Brussels sprouts).
A large number of fruits and vegetables are rich in potassium and vitamins.
41. Diseases that are selected for case management are usually ____ conditions, such as
asthma, congestive heart failure (CHF), HIV infection, and chronic psychiatric conditions.
A good outcome will show ____ and ___ or ____.
chronic good symptom control no exacerbations hospitalizations
42. Danger Signals Cardiovascular System
Acute MI, unstable angina Heart failure Bacterial endocarditis Abdominal aortic
aneurysm (AAA)
43. Danger Signals Skin and Integumentary System
Angioedema/anaphylaxis Stevens-Johnson syndrome Meningococcemia Rocky
Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) Lyme disease Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
44. Danger Signals Gastrointestinal System
Acute abdomen (surgical abdomen) Acute appendicitis Acute pancreatitis Acute
diverticulitis Acute cholecystitis Clostridium difficile infection Colon cancer
45. Danger Signals Men’s Health
Testicular torsion Priapism Prostate cancer
46. Danger Signals Psychosocial Mental Health
Depression with suicidal plan Acute serotonin syndrome Malignant neuroleptic
syndrome
47. Danger Signals Nervous System
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Temporal arteritis headache Subarachnoid bleeding
Acute bacterial meningitis Subdural hematoma
,331. Primary Prevention (____)
Prevention of Disease or Injury/Eliminate or Reduce Risk Factors for an Illness
332. Secondary Prevention (___)
Early Detection of a Disease to Minimize Bodily Damage
333. Tertiary Prevention (___)
Reduce Impact of Disease or Injury/Rehabilitation/Support Groups/Equipment
334. Aged 50 to 59 years with ≥10% CVD risk: Initiate ___ use for primary prevention of
___ and __ cancer in patients who are not at increased risk for bleeding with life
expectancy of at least 10 years and who are willing to take low-dose aspirin daily for at
least 10 years
low-dose aspirin cardiovascular colorectal
335. Baseline mammogram: Start at age __ years and repeat every __ years until age __
years
50 2 74
336. The American Cancer Society recommends that women at highest risk of breast
cancer (i.e., those with BRCA gene) should obtain both breast MRI and mammogram ___,
typically starting at age __.
every year 30
337. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 20 years or younger
Do not screen (even if sexually active with multiple partners); cervical cancer is rare
before age 21 years
338. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 21–29 years
Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone
339. Cervical Cancer Screening Aged 30–65 years
Every 3 years with cervical cytology alone, every 5 years with high-risk human
papillomavirus (hrHPV) testing alone, or every 5 years with hrHPV testing in
combination with cytology
340. Cervical Cancer Screening Prior hysterectomy with removal of cervix
If hysterectomy with cervical removal was not due to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
(CIN grade 2) or cervical cancer, stop screening
,439. The nurse practitioner reviewing the medications of a 72-year-old male notes the
that patient uses tiotropium-olodaterol (Stiolto Respimat) inhaled daily. The disease
process typically associated with this medication is: Chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) Asthma Bronchiectasis Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Tiotropium is a long-acting
antimuscarinic bronchodilator (LAMA), and olodaterol is a long-acting beta2 agonist
(LABA). Tiotropium–olodaterol is a LAMA/LABA combination of drugs prescribed to
treat a Gold B category of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Asthma is
generally not treated with a LAMA/LABA drug. The prescribed pharmacological
treatment of bronchiectasis is focused on the infection. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
is treated with antifibrotics.
440. The nurse practitioner is reviewing the medications of a 72-year-old patient who
states, "Ever since I started these medications, my skin constantly feels itchy." Which
prescription will the nurse practitioner associate with the patient's condition?
Olmesartan (Benicar) 10 mg PO daily Venlafaxine (Effexor) 75 mg PO daily Metformin
(Glucophage) 500 mg PO BID Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) 25 mg PO daily
Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) 25 mg PO daily. Hydrochlorothiazide is a drug
commonly associated with systemic pruritis in the older adult. Olmesartan,
venlafaxine, and metformin are not commonly associated with systemic pruritis in the
older adult.
441. Which pharmacological treatments for hypertension will the nurse practitioner
consider safe to prescribe to an older adult with a history of a myocardial infarction?
Select all that apply. Diuretics Central adrenergic Alpha-adrenoreceptor antagonist Beta-
adrenoreceptor antagonist Angiotensin-converting enzyme
Diuretics, Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist and Angiotensinconverting enzyme. The
current recommendation for hypertension in the older adult with a history of
myocardial infarction is treatment with diuretics, a beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist,
and/or angiotensinconverting enzyme. Central adrenergic and alphaadrenoreceptor
antagonists are not recommended for treatment of hypertension for an older adult.
442. Which diuretic will the nurse practitioner add to the treatment plan for an adult
patient treated for hypertension with captopril (Capoten)? Amiloride (Midamor)
Spironolactone (Aldactone) Furosemide (Lasix) Triamterene (Dyrenium)
Furosemide (Lasix). A loop diuretic such as furosemide is safe to prescribe to an adult
to help treat hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics such as amiloride,
spironolactone, and triamterene should not be administered to patients receiving ACE
inhibitors due to the risk of hyperkalemia.
,520. 40.0% complete Question A new mother reports to you that her 6month-old infant
has a cold and a fever of 99.8°F. The infant is not irritable and is feeding well without
problems. The mother wants to know whether it is okay for him to be immunized at this
time. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The infant should not be immunized until he is afebrile
B. An infant with a cold can be immunized at any time
C. An infant with a cold can be immunized as long as the infant's temperature is n
Correct Solution: C
Source Explanation: An infant with a cold can be immunized as long as the infant’s
temperature is not higher than 100.4°F. It is fine for your child to get vaccinated, even if they
have a mild illness. A vaccine will not make a mild illness worse. A child can be vaccinated
even if they have a low-grade fever, a cold, runny nose, cough, otitis media, or mild diarrhea.
521. All of the following children are within the parameters of normal growth and
development for their age group, except:
A. A 2-month-old who coos and smiles
B. A 14-month-old who understands complex commands
C. A 20-month-old who can walk without support
D. A 3-year-old who can speak in three- to five-word sentences
Correct Solution: B
Source Explanation: A 14-month-old who understands complex commands. A 14-month-old
child should developmentally be able to say “mama” and “dada,” know their own name, and
know at least two to five words. A 2-year-old is able to understand simple commands.
,701. Remember what ____ vision means: Patient can see at 20 feet what a person with
normal vision can see at 60 feet.
20/60
702. ______ (similar to hydrogen peroxide) is one of the most common OTC treatments
for ceruminosis.
Carbamide peroxide
703. Recognize herpes keratitis; cause is either herpes simplex or varicella zoster
(shingles of trigeminal nerve ophthalmic branch). If herpes keratitis, refer to ___ or
ophthalmologist stat.
ED
704. Use fluorescein strips to check for ____ and ___. Do not pick "split lamp."
corneal abrasions keratitis
705. The nurse practitioner auscultates a child's heart and hears a musical sound, which
becomes louder in a supine position. This sound is most consistent with a:
A. Systolic murmur
B. Diastolic murmur
C. Continuous murmur
D. Still's murmur
Correct Solution: D
Source Explanation: Still’s murmur. A Still’s murmur is benign, occurs during childhood
years, and usually resolves by adolescence. Also called a functional murmur, it becomes
louder in a supine position or with a fever. There is minimal radiation, with a grade of I or II.
Systolic murmurs occur during S1, are louder than diastolic murmurs, and can radiate to the
neck or axillae. Diastolic murmurs always indicate heart disease, which is not likely in
children. Continuous murmurs occur throughout the complete cardiac cycle.
,798. _____: The skin area that is outside of the joint (e.g., front of knee, back of elbow)
Extensor
799. ____: The area of the skin on top of the joint with skin folds (e.g., back of knees,
antecubital space)
Flexor
800. _____: Skin flexures are body folds (eczema affects flexural folds)
Flexural
801. _____: An area where two skin areas touch or rub each other (e.g., axilla, breast skin
folds, anogenital area, between the fingers/digits)
Intertriginous
802. _____ rash: Rash with color (usually pink to red) with small bumps that are raised
above the skin (viral rashes)
Maculopapular
803. _____: Rash that resembles measles (pink rash with texture)
Morbilliform
804. ____: Coin-shaped, round (nummular eczema)
Nummular
805. ____: Bleeding into the skin; small bleeds are petechial (RMSF), and larger areas of
bleeding are ecchymoses or purpura (meningococcemia)
Purpura
806. ____: Shaped like a snake (larva migrans)
Serpiginous
807. ______: Wartlike
Verrucous
808. ____: Dry skin
Xerosis
809. The “A, B, C, D, E” of melanoma: A: ___ B: ____ C: ____ D: ____ E: ____
Asymmetry Border irregular Color varies in the same region Diameter >6 mm
Enlargement or change in size
, 989. A female adult patient presents with complaints of "bad burns" that are very painful.
A large pot of boiling water tipped over and spilled on her arms and her anterior chest
and abdomen. During the physical exam, the nurse practitioner notices brightred skin
with numerous bullae on the left arm and hand and large patches of bright-red skin on
the anterior chest and abdominal area. On a pain scale of 1 to 10, she reports the pain as
9. Her vital signs are stable with tachycardia (pulse is 100 beats/min). She does not
appear to be in shock. Using the rule of nines, what are the total body surface area
(TBSA) and the depth of the burns in this patient?
A. The patient has a TBSA of 15% with fullthickness burns of the left arm and left hand and
partial-thickness burns of the anterior chest and abdominal area
B. The patient has a TBSA of 20% with partialthickness burns on the left arm and left hand
and mild burns on
Correct The patient has a TBSA of 27% with partial-thickness burns on
Source Explanation: the left arm and left hand and superficial burns on the anterior chest
and abdominal area Using the rule of nines, the anterior thorax is 18% and the left arm/hand
is 9%, totaling 27%. A standard Lund–Browder (rule of nines) chart is readily available in
most emergency departments. A partial-thickness burn is the same as a second-degree burn.
A superficial burn is a first-degree burn.
990. An elderly male presents to the clinic for a routine examination. The nurse
practitioner notes multiple rough, scaly patches on the patient's forearms and face and
the back of his ears. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Senile purpura
C. Lentigines
D. Senile actinic keratosis
Correct Solution: D
Source Explanation: Senile actinic keratosis Actinic keratosis is considered the most
common precancerous lesion of squamous cell carcinoma in older adults. Actinic keratosis is
a rough, scaly patch on the skin that develops from years of exposure to the sun. It is most
commonly found on the face, lips, ears, back of the hands, forearms, scalp, or neck. Senile
purpura presents as bright, purple-colored patches located on the forearms and hands and
are benign. Lentigines, also known as “liver spots,” are browncolored macules located on the
hands and forearms of older adults and are benign. Seborrheic keratoses are soft, wartlike
benign lesions that frequently appear on the back and trunk of older adults.
