BARKLEY ADULT-GERONTOLOGY NURSE PRACTITIONER (AGNP-C) EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+| 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
Core Domains
Comprehensive Health Assessment and Differential Diagnosis
Management of Acute and Chronic Illnesses
Pharmacology and Prescriptive Authority
Geriatric Syndromes and Age-Related Physiological Changes
Transitional Care and Care Coordination
Healthcare Policy, Ethics, and Legal Issues
Evidence-Based Practice and Quality Improvement
Palliative and End-of-Life Care
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to rigorously assess the clinical knowledge, critical thinking, and
decision-making skills essential for certification as a Barkley Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner (AGNP-C). The
exam focuses on the advanced competencies required to provide holistic, patient-centered care across the adult
and geriatric lifespan, encompassing health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of complex acute
and chronic conditions. Candidates will be challenged with multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that
emphasize the application of evidence-based guidelines, pharmacological principles, and ethical-legal standards in
,real-world primary and acute care settings. This assessment is a vital tool for ensuring readiness to deliver high-
quality, safe, and effective care to a diverse aging population.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with a three-day history of
worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and a 4-pound weight gain. On examination, you note jugular venous
distention, crackles in the lung bases, and pitting edema in the lower extremities. His current medications
include lisinopril 20 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, and carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Increase furosemide to 80 mg daily.
B. Add spironolactone 25 mg daily.
C. Increase carvedilol to 25 mg twice daily.
D. Administer intravenous (IV) furosemide.
🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has acute decompensated heart failure with significant fluid overload. IV diuretic
therapy is indicated for rapid and reliable decongestion, especially when oral absorption may be compromised.
Increasing the oral diuretic dose may be insufficient. Adding spironolactone or increasing carvedilol are not
initial interventions for acute decompensation.
,2. A 68-year-old female presents with a complaint of a sudden onset of severe, sharp chest pain that is worse
with inspiration and improves with leaning forward. She reports that she has had a recent upper respiratory
infection. On examination, you note a pericardial friction rub. An ECG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy?
A. Aspirin and nitroglycerin
B. Ibuprofen and colchicine
C. Heparin and warfarin
D. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has acute pericarditis. NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen) and colchicine are first-line
treatments to reduce inflammation and pain. Aspirin and nitroglycerin are used for acute coronary syndrome.
Heparin and warfarin are used for thromboembolic disorders. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke.
3. A 75-year-old male with a 45-pack-year smoking history presents with a progressive cough, hemoptysis,
and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right upper lobe. A bronchoscopy with biopsy confirms
non-small cell lung cancer. Which of the following is the most critical factor in determining his overall
prognosis?
A. Tumor size
B. Histologic subtype
, C. Presence of metastases
D. Patient's performance status
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: The stage of cancer, specifically the presence of metastases, is the most critical prognostic
factor in lung cancer, as it indicates advanced disease and significantly impacts survival. While tumor size,
histologic subtype, and performance status are important, the presence of metastases is the primary
determinant of prognosis.
4. A 70-year-old female presents with a complaint of a painful, swollen, and stiff left knee. She reports that
the pain is worse in the morning and improves with activity. On examination, you note crepitus and bony
enlargement of the joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management?
A. NSAIDs
B. Acetaminophen
C. Corticosteroid injection
D. Surgery
🟢A
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has osteoarthritis. NSAIDs are the initial treatment for pain relief. Acetaminophen is
an alternative for those who cannot tolerate NSAIDs. Corticosteroid injections are used for more severe pain.
Surgery is reserved for advanced disease.
ALREADY GRADED A+| 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
Core Domains
Comprehensive Health Assessment and Differential Diagnosis
Management of Acute and Chronic Illnesses
Pharmacology and Prescriptive Authority
Geriatric Syndromes and Age-Related Physiological Changes
Transitional Care and Care Coordination
Healthcare Policy, Ethics, and Legal Issues
Evidence-Based Practice and Quality Improvement
Palliative and End-of-Life Care
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to rigorously assess the clinical knowledge, critical thinking, and
decision-making skills essential for certification as a Barkley Adult-Gerontology Nurse Practitioner (AGNP-C). The
exam focuses on the advanced competencies required to provide holistic, patient-centered care across the adult
and geriatric lifespan, encompassing health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of complex acute
and chronic conditions. Candidates will be challenged with multiple-choice and scenario-based questions that
emphasize the application of evidence-based guidelines, pharmacological principles, and ethical-legal standards in
,real-world primary and acute care settings. This assessment is a vital tool for ensuring readiness to deliver high-
quality, safe, and effective care to a diverse aging population.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with a three-day history of
worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and a 4-pound weight gain. On examination, you note jugular venous
distention, crackles in the lung bases, and pitting edema in the lower extremities. His current medications
include lisinopril 20 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, and carvedilol 12.5 mg twice daily. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Increase furosemide to 80 mg daily.
B. Add spironolactone 25 mg daily.
C. Increase carvedilol to 25 mg twice daily.
D. Administer intravenous (IV) furosemide.
🟢D
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has acute decompensated heart failure with significant fluid overload. IV diuretic
therapy is indicated for rapid and reliable decongestion, especially when oral absorption may be compromised.
Increasing the oral diuretic dose may be insufficient. Adding spironolactone or increasing carvedilol are not
initial interventions for acute decompensation.
,2. A 68-year-old female presents with a complaint of a sudden onset of severe, sharp chest pain that is worse
with inspiration and improves with leaning forward. She reports that she has had a recent upper respiratory
infection. On examination, you note a pericardial friction rub. An ECG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy?
A. Aspirin and nitroglycerin
B. Ibuprofen and colchicine
C. Heparin and warfarin
D. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
🟢B
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has acute pericarditis. NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen) and colchicine are first-line
treatments to reduce inflammation and pain. Aspirin and nitroglycerin are used for acute coronary syndrome.
Heparin and warfarin are used for thromboembolic disorders. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke.
3. A 75-year-old male with a 45-pack-year smoking history presents with a progressive cough, hemoptysis,
and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right upper lobe. A bronchoscopy with biopsy confirms
non-small cell lung cancer. Which of the following is the most critical factor in determining his overall
prognosis?
A. Tumor size
B. Histologic subtype
, C. Presence of metastases
D. Patient's performance status
🟢C
🔴 RATIONALE: The stage of cancer, specifically the presence of metastases, is the most critical prognostic
factor in lung cancer, as it indicates advanced disease and significantly impacts survival. While tumor size,
histologic subtype, and performance status are important, the presence of metastases is the primary
determinant of prognosis.
4. A 70-year-old female presents with a complaint of a painful, swollen, and stiff left knee. She reports that
the pain is worse in the morning and improves with activity. On examination, you note crepitus and bony
enlargement of the joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management?
A. NSAIDs
B. Acetaminophen
C. Corticosteroid injection
D. Surgery
🟢A
🔴 RATIONALE: The patient has osteoarthritis. NSAIDs are the initial treatment for pain relief. Acetaminophen is
an alternative for those who cannot tolerate NSAIDs. Corticosteroid injections are used for more severe pain.
Surgery is reserved for advanced disease.
