NURS 6531 ADVANCED PRACTICE
NURSING ROLES EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. Which regulatory component of the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation ensures that an
individual has met the minimum requirements to practice in a specific role and population?
A. Accreditation
B. Certification
C. Education
D. Licensure
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Licensure is the process by which an agency of state government
grants permission to an individual to engage in the practice of a profession. Certification
validates that an individual has met certain predetermined standards, while licensure
provides the legal authority to practice.
,2. Under the ‘Incident-to’ billing rules for Medicare, at what rate is the APRN’s service
reimbursed?
A. 85% of the Physician Fee Schedule
B. 90% of the Physician Fee Schedule
C. 75% of the Physician Fee Schedule
D. 100% of the Physician Fee Schedule
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: ‘Incident-to’ billing allows services provided by an APRN to be
billed under the physician’s NPI at 100% of the fee schedule, provided specific criteria are
met, such as the physician being physically present in the office suite.
3. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation identifies four distinct roles. Which of the
following is NOT one of these roles?
A. Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM)
B. Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS)
C. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)
D. Clinical Nurse Leader (CNL)
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: The four APRN roles are CNP, CRNA, CNM, and CNS. The Clinical
Nurse Leader (CNL) is a master’s prepared nurse but is not considered an Advanced
Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) under the Consensus Model.
4. Which ethical principle is most directly involved when an APRN respects a patient’s right to
refuse a life-saving treatment?
A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Non-maleficence
D. Beneficence
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make decisions about
their own healthcare, even if those decisions conflict with the provider’s recommendations.
5. What is the primary purpose of the National Provider Identifier (NPI)?
A. To provide a unique identification number for covered healthcare providers in HIPAA
standard transactions
B. To track the quality of care provided by individual nurses
C. To verify that an APRN has completed a DNP degree
D. To replace the state license number for prescribing controlled substances
Answer: A
NURSING ROLES EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
1. Which regulatory component of the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation ensures that an
individual has met the minimum requirements to practice in a specific role and population?
A. Accreditation
B. Certification
C. Education
D. Licensure
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Licensure is the process by which an agency of state government
grants permission to an individual to engage in the practice of a profession. Certification
validates that an individual has met certain predetermined standards, while licensure
provides the legal authority to practice.
,2. Under the ‘Incident-to’ billing rules for Medicare, at what rate is the APRN’s service
reimbursed?
A. 85% of the Physician Fee Schedule
B. 90% of the Physician Fee Schedule
C. 75% of the Physician Fee Schedule
D. 100% of the Physician Fee Schedule
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: ‘Incident-to’ billing allows services provided by an APRN to be
billed under the physician’s NPI at 100% of the fee schedule, provided specific criteria are
met, such as the physician being physically present in the office suite.
3. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation identifies four distinct roles. Which of the
following is NOT one of these roles?
A. Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM)
B. Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS)
C. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA)
D. Clinical Nurse Leader (CNL)
Answer: D
, Conceptual Explanation: The four APRN roles are CNP, CRNA, CNM, and CNS. The Clinical
Nurse Leader (CNL) is a master’s prepared nurse but is not considered an Advanced
Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) under the Consensus Model.
4. Which ethical principle is most directly involved when an APRN respects a patient’s right to
refuse a life-saving treatment?
A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Non-maleficence
D. Beneficence
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Autonomy refers to the right of patients to make decisions about
their own healthcare, even if those decisions conflict with the provider’s recommendations.
5. What is the primary purpose of the National Provider Identifier (NPI)?
A. To provide a unique identification number for covered healthcare providers in HIPAA
standard transactions
B. To track the quality of care provided by individual nurses
C. To verify that an APRN has completed a DNP degree
D. To replace the state license number for prescribing controlled substances
Answer: A
