ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING
ROLES AND PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. According to Patricia Benner’s ‘Novice to Expert’ model, at which stage is the nurse able to
see the situation as a whole rather than a series of tasks and can prioritize intuitively?
A. Competent
B. Proficient
C. Expert
D. Advanced Beginner
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Proficient stage is characterized by the ability to perceive
situations as wholes rather than in terms of chopped-up parts. The nurse at this level has a
deep understanding of the situation and can prioritize tasks based on the larger picture.
2. In the context of Medicare reimbursement, the ‘85% rule’ refers to which of the following?
A. The percentage of patient visits that must be documented for billing
B. The rate at which NPs are reimbursed compared to physicians for the same service
,C. The amount of the bill that patients are required to pay out of pocket
D. The percentage of time an NP must spend in direct patient care
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Medicare typically reimburses Nurse Practitioners at 85% of the
Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) rate for the same CPT code when the service is billed under
the NP’s own NPI.
3. To qualify for ‘Incident-to’ billing at 100% of the physician rate, which of the following
criteria must be met?
A. The physician must be in the office suite and immediately available
B. The physician must be in the room while the NP performs the service
C. The NP must be treating a new patient for a new problem
D. The NP must be the one who established the initial plan of care
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: For ‘Incident-to’ billing, the physician must have established the
care plan for the specific problem, and the physician must be in the office suite (direct
supervision) while the NP provides the follow-up service.
4. Which element of professional negligence requires the plaintiff to prove that the NP’s
breach of duty was the direct cause of the patient’s injury?
A. Duty of care
, B. Breach of duty
C. Proximate cause
D. Damages
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Proximate cause (or causation) requires proving that the injury
was a foreseeable result of the practitioner’s breach of duty, establishing a direct link
between action and harm.
5. The ‘LACE’ model, essential for APRN regulation, stands for which components?
A. Learning, Accountability, Credentialing, Evaluation
B. Leadership, Advocacy, Collaboration, Ethics
C. Licensure, Accreditation, Certification, Education
D. Legal, Administrative, Clinical, Educational
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation uses the LACE
framework: Licensure (by state boards), Accreditation (of programs), Certification (by
national bodies), and Education (graduate-level).
6. A patient refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The NP respects
this decision. This is an application of which ethical principle?
A. Beneficence
ROLES AND PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. According to Patricia Benner’s ‘Novice to Expert’ model, at which stage is the nurse able to
see the situation as a whole rather than a series of tasks and can prioritize intuitively?
A. Competent
B. Proficient
C. Expert
D. Advanced Beginner
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Proficient stage is characterized by the ability to perceive
situations as wholes rather than in terms of chopped-up parts. The nurse at this level has a
deep understanding of the situation and can prioritize tasks based on the larger picture.
2. In the context of Medicare reimbursement, the ‘85% rule’ refers to which of the following?
A. The percentage of patient visits that must be documented for billing
B. The rate at which NPs are reimbursed compared to physicians for the same service
,C. The amount of the bill that patients are required to pay out of pocket
D. The percentage of time an NP must spend in direct patient care
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Medicare typically reimburses Nurse Practitioners at 85% of the
Physician Fee Schedule (PFS) rate for the same CPT code when the service is billed under
the NP’s own NPI.
3. To qualify for ‘Incident-to’ billing at 100% of the physician rate, which of the following
criteria must be met?
A. The physician must be in the office suite and immediately available
B. The physician must be in the room while the NP performs the service
C. The NP must be treating a new patient for a new problem
D. The NP must be the one who established the initial plan of care
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: For ‘Incident-to’ billing, the physician must have established the
care plan for the specific problem, and the physician must be in the office suite (direct
supervision) while the NP provides the follow-up service.
4. Which element of professional negligence requires the plaintiff to prove that the NP’s
breach of duty was the direct cause of the patient’s injury?
A. Duty of care
, B. Breach of duty
C. Proximate cause
D. Damages
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Proximate cause (or causation) requires proving that the injury
was a foreseeable result of the practitioner’s breach of duty, establishing a direct link
between action and harm.
5. The ‘LACE’ model, essential for APRN regulation, stands for which components?
A. Learning, Accountability, Credentialing, Evaluation
B. Leadership, Advocacy, Collaboration, Ethics
C. Licensure, Accreditation, Certification, Education
D. Legal, Administrative, Clinical, Educational
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation uses the LACE
framework: Licensure (by state boards), Accreditation (of programs), Certification (by
national bodies), and Education (graduate-level).
6. A patient refuses a life-saving blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. The NP respects
this decision. This is an application of which ethical principle?
A. Beneficence
