NR 568 Final Exam Prep: Questions 1-200 (New Unique Set - No
Repetition from Previous) | Advanced Practice Psychiatric Nursing
Psychopharmacology Test Bank
Accelerate your psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner board preparation with this
brand-new, completely unique set of practice questions 1 through 200 for the NR 568
final exam. This comprehensive test bank features 100% verified correct answers and
detailed, evidence-based rationales with zero repetition from previous study materials,
focusing heavily on advanced clinical decision-making. It is an indispensable resource
for graduate nursing students looking to master neurobiology, psychotropic prescribing
guidelines across the lifespan, and drug-receptor mechanics to secure an A+ grade.
Question 1
A 65-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil.
What is the primary mechanism of action of donepezil?
A) NMDA receptor antagonist
B) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
C) Dopamine receptor agonist
D) Glutamate release inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that
increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the brain by inhibiting its
breakdown. This enhances cholinergic neurotransmission, which is deficient
in Alzheimer's disease. The primary mechanism is cholinesterase inhibition,
not NMDA antagonism, dopamine agonism, or glutamate inhibition .
,Question 2
A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on carbidopa/levodopa. What
is the purpose of carbidopa?
A) To increase dopamine release in the brain
B) To inhibit the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
C) To directly stimulate dopamine receptors
D) To slow the metabolism of levodopa in the liver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Carbidopa is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor that prevents
the conversion of levodopa to dopamine outside the central nervous system.
This allows more levodopa to reach the brain, reducing peripheral side effects
like nausea and allowing for a lower dose of levodopa to be used .
Question 3
A 72-year-old patient with moderate Alzheimer's disease is started on
memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
A) Acetylcholinesterase inhibition
B) NMDA receptor antagonist
C) Dopamine receptor agonist
D) MAO-B inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Memantine is a non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist. It
modulates the effects of glutamate, a neurotransmitter involved in learning
and memory. Overstimulation of NMDA receptors is thought to contribute to
neurodegeneration in Alzheimer's disease .
,Question 4
A patient on levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease develops
dyskinesias. Which medication can be added to help manage this side
effect?
A) Amantadine
B) Selegiline
C) Entacapone
D) Pramipexole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amantadine has NMDA antagonist properties and is used to
reduce levodopa-induced dyskinesias in Parkinson's disease. Its exact
mechanism in this context is not fully understood but is thought to involve
glutamate modulation .
Question 5
A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is started on
phenelzine. Which dietary item should be strictly avoided to prevent
hypertensive crisis?
A) Grapefruit juice
B) Aged cheese and cured meats
C) Bananas
D) Chocolate
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Consumption of tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheese, cured meats, and
fermented products can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. Tyramine displaces
norepinephrine from presynaptic vesicles, causing a massive release of
catecholamines. This can lead to severe headache, hypertension, palpitations,
and nausea, which can be fatal .
Question 6
A patient on an MAOI is being switched to an SSRI. What is the minimum
recommended washout period?
A) 5 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days
Correct Answer: B or 5 weeks depending on the SSRI
Rationale: A washout period of at least 14 days is required when switching
from an MAOI to an SSRI to prevent serotonin syndrome. For fluoxetine, a 5-
week washout is recommended due to its long half-life. This allows sufficient
time for the MAOI to clear from the system .
Question 7
A 55-year-old patient with depression and fibromyalgia is started on
duloxetine. What is the primary mechanism by which duloxetine provides
analgesic effects?
Repetition from Previous) | Advanced Practice Psychiatric Nursing
Psychopharmacology Test Bank
Accelerate your psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner board preparation with this
brand-new, completely unique set of practice questions 1 through 200 for the NR 568
final exam. This comprehensive test bank features 100% verified correct answers and
detailed, evidence-based rationales with zero repetition from previous study materials,
focusing heavily on advanced clinical decision-making. It is an indispensable resource
for graduate nursing students looking to master neurobiology, psychotropic prescribing
guidelines across the lifespan, and drug-receptor mechanics to secure an A+ grade.
Question 1
A 65-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil.
What is the primary mechanism of action of donepezil?
A) NMDA receptor antagonist
B) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
C) Dopamine receptor agonist
D) Glutamate release inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that
increases the concentration of acetylcholine in the brain by inhibiting its
breakdown. This enhances cholinergic neurotransmission, which is deficient
in Alzheimer's disease. The primary mechanism is cholinesterase inhibition,
not NMDA antagonism, dopamine agonism, or glutamate inhibition .
,Question 2
A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on carbidopa/levodopa. What
is the purpose of carbidopa?
A) To increase dopamine release in the brain
B) To inhibit the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
C) To directly stimulate dopamine receptors
D) To slow the metabolism of levodopa in the liver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Carbidopa is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor that prevents
the conversion of levodopa to dopamine outside the central nervous system.
This allows more levodopa to reach the brain, reducing peripheral side effects
like nausea and allowing for a lower dose of levodopa to be used .
Question 3
A 72-year-old patient with moderate Alzheimer's disease is started on
memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
A) Acetylcholinesterase inhibition
B) NMDA receptor antagonist
C) Dopamine receptor agonist
D) MAO-B inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Memantine is a non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist. It
modulates the effects of glutamate, a neurotransmitter involved in learning
and memory. Overstimulation of NMDA receptors is thought to contribute to
neurodegeneration in Alzheimer's disease .
,Question 4
A patient on levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease develops
dyskinesias. Which medication can be added to help manage this side
effect?
A) Amantadine
B) Selegiline
C) Entacapone
D) Pramipexole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amantadine has NMDA antagonist properties and is used to
reduce levodopa-induced dyskinesias in Parkinson's disease. Its exact
mechanism in this context is not fully understood but is thought to involve
glutamate modulation .
Question 5
A 45-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is started on
phenelzine. Which dietary item should be strictly avoided to prevent
hypertensive crisis?
A) Grapefruit juice
B) Aged cheese and cured meats
C) Bananas
D) Chocolate
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Consumption of tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheese, cured meats, and
fermented products can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. Tyramine displaces
norepinephrine from presynaptic vesicles, causing a massive release of
catecholamines. This can lead to severe headache, hypertension, palpitations,
and nausea, which can be fatal .
Question 6
A patient on an MAOI is being switched to an SSRI. What is the minimum
recommended washout period?
A) 5 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days
Correct Answer: B or 5 weeks depending on the SSRI
Rationale: A washout period of at least 14 days is required when switching
from an MAOI to an SSRI to prevent serotonin syndrome. For fluoxetine, a 5-
week washout is recommended due to its long half-life. This allows sufficient
time for the MAOI to clear from the system .
Question 7
A 55-year-old patient with depression and fibromyalgia is started on
duloxetine. What is the primary mechanism by which duloxetine provides
analgesic effects?
