NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (2026)
UPDATED
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with a sudden onset of painless
vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is the hallmark sign of
placenta previa. Placental abruption usually involves painful bleeding. Exam questions often test
whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what
the nurse can actually do right now. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
2. Which of the following is a definitive diagnostic finding for HELLP syndrome?
A. Low platelets (<100,000/mm³), elevated liver enzymes, and hemolysis
B. Proteinuria >300 mg in 24 hours
C. Elevated blood pressure >160/110 mmHg
D. Peripheral edema and sudden weight gain
Answer: A
Rationale: HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. While high BP
and proteinuria are common in preeclampsia, they are not the specific criteria for HELLP.
Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on
the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level. Knowing the reason behind
the correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that
protects the client and matches the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. A patient at 10 weeks gestation presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and a fundal
height measuring 16 weeks. Ultrasound shows a ‘snowstorm’ pattern. What is the suspected
condition?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Multiple gestation
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: B
Rationale: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) typically presents with high hCG levels, severe
nausea, a uterus larger than dates, and a characteristic ‘snowstorm’ or ‘honeycomb’ appearance on
ultrasound. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong
options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority need. This
knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear
teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
4. What is the primary purpose of administering Magnesium Sulfate to a patient with severe
preeclampsia?
A. To lower maternal blood pressure
B. To stop premature contractions
C. To improve fetal lung maturity
D. To prevent seizures
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium Sulfate is used primarily for seizure prophylaxis (preventing eclampsia) in
patients with preeclampsia. It is not an antihypertensive drug. Knowing the reason behind the correct
answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client
and matches the priority need. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client
and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026/2027 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (2026)
UPDATED
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS
with Clear, Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations) / Study Guide
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Rationales
Grade: A+ Assured
ASSURED GRADE A+
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 1
,NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with a sudden onset of painless
vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is the hallmark sign of
placenta previa. Placental abruption usually involves painful bleeding. Exam questions often test
whether you can pick the most practical and safe choice for the client in real situations. Focus on what
the nurse can actually do right now. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to
rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority
need.
2. Which of the following is a definitive diagnostic finding for HELLP syndrome?
A. Low platelets (<100,000/mm³), elevated liver enzymes, and hemolysis
B. Proteinuria >300 mg in 24 hours
C. Elevated blood pressure >160/110 mmHg
D. Peripheral edema and sudden weight gain
Answer: A
Rationale: HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. While high BP
and proteinuria are common in preeclampsia, they are not the specific criteria for HELLP.
Remembering this point will help you decide the best nursing action when similar questions appear on
the exam. Link the answer to the client’s current condition and risk level. Knowing the reason behind
the correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that
protects the client and matches the priority need.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 2
, NR 602 Final Exam: Advanced Childbearing Care (20… 2026/2027 • Verified • Assured Grade A+
3. A patient at 10 weeks gestation presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and a fundal
height measuring 16 weeks. Ultrasound shows a ‘snowstorm’ pattern. What is the suspected
condition?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Multiple gestation
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: B
Rationale: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) typically presents with high hCG levels, severe
nausea, a uterus larger than dates, and a characteristic ‘snowstorm’ or ‘honeycomb’ appearance on
ultrasound. Knowing the reason behind the correct answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong
options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client and matches the priority need. This
knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client and family clearly and simply. Clear
teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
4. What is the primary purpose of administering Magnesium Sulfate to a patient with severe
preeclampsia?
A. To lower maternal blood pressure
B. To stop premature contractions
C. To improve fetal lung maturity
D. To prevent seizures
Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium Sulfate is used primarily for seizure prophylaxis (preventing eclampsia) in
patients with preeclampsia. It is not an antihypertensive drug. Knowing the reason behind the correct
answer makes it easier to rule out the wrong options quickly. Look for the choice that protects the client
and matches the priority need. This knowledge supports safe care and helps the nurse teach the client
and family clearly and simply. Clear teaching improves cooperation and reduces anxiety.
Exam (Elaborations) • Detailed Rationales Page 3
