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NSG 530 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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NSG 530 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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NSG 530 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 1
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS




1. A patient exhibits a reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, less

differentiated cell type in response to chronic irritation. Which cellular adaptation is this?

A. Hyperplasia


B. Metaplasia


C. Dysplasia


D. Atrophy


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type

by another, often less differentiated, cell type to better withstand an adverse environment.


2. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the cellular swelling seen in hypoxic injury?

A. Decrease in intracellular calcium levels


B. Increase in ATP production


C. Failure of the sodium-potassium pump

,D. Activation of the complement system


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Hypoxia leads to ATP depletion, causing the Na+/K+ pump to

fail. Sodium enters the cell, followed by water, resulting in cellular swelling.


3. A 50-year-old male with chronic hypertension has an enlarged left ventricle. This is an

example of:

A. Physiologic hyperplasia


B. Compensatory hyperplasia


C. Pathologic hypertrophy


D. Metaplasia


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Pathologic hypertrophy occurs in response to increased

workload, such as the heart pumping against high pressure in chronic hypertension.


4. Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemic injury in the brain?

A. Coagulative necrosis


B. Caseous necrosis


C. Fat necrosis


D. Liquefactive necrosis

, Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain due to the high

concentration of hydrolytic enzymes and lipids, turning tissue into a liquid mass.


5. Apoptosis is characterized by which of the following?

A. Extensive inflammatory response


B. Cellular rupture and release of contents


C. Passive cell death resulting from acute injury


D. Programmed cell death with no inflammation


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Apoptosis is a regulated, programmed process of cell self-

destruction that does not typically elicit an inflammatory response.


6. Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by the presence of a single X

chromosome (45, X)?

A. Klinefelter syndrome


B. Down syndrome


C. Turner syndrome


D. Edwards syndrome


Answer: C

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