PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam – Part I, II & III |
Complete 2026 Updated Test Bank with Verified Questions &
Answers | Relias Nursing Assessment Prep, Compliance, Safety,
HIPAA, OSHA & Infection Control Review | Latest 2026/2027
Update | Graded A+
PART 1: PATIENT SAFETY & IDENTIFICATION
Q1. According to the National Patient Safety Goals, what is the most important method for
preventing patient identification errors?
• A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. Jones?"
• B) Use the patient's room number as identification
• C) Use two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
• D) Verify identity with a family member
Answer: C) Use two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
Rationale: The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals mandate the use of at least two
patient identifiers (never the room number) before any procedure, medication administration, or
blood specimen collection. This prevents misidentification errors and adverse events .
Q2. When must two patient identifiers be used?
• A) When admitting a patient
• B) When collecting a blood specimen
• C) When discharging a patient
• D) When transferring a patient
Answer: B) When collecting a blood specimen
Rationale: Two patient identifiers are required before collecting blood specimens, administering
medications, performing procedures, and administering blood products. This ensures the right
patient receives the right intervention .
Q3. What is the correct method to identify a patient prior to medication administration?
• A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. Jones?"
• B) Check the patient's room number
• C) Use the patient's name and date of birth
• D) Verify with a family member
Answer: C) Use the patient's name and date of birth
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
Rationale: Asking a closed question like "Are you Mr. Jones?" can lead to confirmation errors. Active
verification using two identifiers (name and date of birth) is the standard of care. Patient
confirmation and armband verification should both be performed .
Q4. According to the National Patient Safety Goals, acceptable patient identifiers include which of
the following?
• A) Patient's room number
• B) Patient's name and birthdate
• C) Patient's diagnosis
• D) Patient's attending physician
Answer: B) Patient's name and birthdate
Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals require at least two patient-specific identifiers. Room
numbers and diagnoses are not acceptable identifiers as they are not unique to the patient .
Q5. The Universal Protocol was developed to prevent:
• A) Medication errors
• B) Healthcare-associated infections
• C) Wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong person surgery
• D) Patient falls
Answer: C) Wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong person surgery
Rationale: The Universal Protocol was established by The Joint Commission to prevent surgical errors
by requiring pre-procedure verification, site marking, and a "time-out" before surgery .
PART 2: FALL PREVENTION & RESTRAINTS
Q6. To prevent falls, which measure is most effective?
• A) Keep bed in the highest position
• B) Apply restraints
• C) Keep bed in lowest position with call light within reach
• D) Turn off lights to promote sleep
Answer: C) Keep bed in lowest position with call light within reach
Rationale: Fall prevention involves environmental modifications including lowering beds, ensuring
call lights are accessible, providing toileting assistance, and hourly rounding. Restraints are a last
resort and not considered a primary fall prevention strategy .
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
Q7. A patient is at risk for falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
• A) Apply wrist restraints
• B) Perform hourly rounding and keep bed in low position
• C) Dim all lights completely
• D) Keep bed in high position
Answer: B) Perform hourly rounding and keep bed in low position
Rationale: The most effective fall prevention includes patient education, call light access, toileting
assistance, and hourly rounding. Restraints are a last resort requiring a physician order and frequent
assessment .
Q8. A nurse is assigned a patient in restraints. Which action is most important?
• A) Assess circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours
• B) Leave restraints in place for the entire shift
• C) Document once daily
• D) Use knots that cannot be untied
Answer: A) Assess circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours
Rationale: Patients in restraints require regular assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and
neurovascular status (every 1-2 hours). Restraints must be released periodically, and documentation
must include the reason for restraint and alternatives attempted .
Q9. Before applying restraints, what must the nurse do?
• A) Apply restraints tightly for security
• B) Exhaust less-restrictive measures and obtain a physician order
• C) Document after restraints are applied
• D) Inform the patient's family only
Answer: B) Exhaust less-restrictive measures and obtain a physician order
Rationale: Restraint use is tightly regulated. After exhausting less-restrictive measures, the nurse
must obtain a physician order and document the rationale. Restraints are a last resort, not a fall
prevention measure .
Q10. What is a key principle of safe restraint use?
• A) Restraints should be applied tightly for security
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
• B) Regular checks for circulation and skin integrity
• C) Restraints can be applied without a physician order in emergencies
• D) Restraints should be left on until discharge
Answer: B) Regular checks for circulation and skin integrity
Rationale: Regular assessment prevents injury and ensures patient safety. The least restrictive
measures should always be used first .
PART 3: INFECTION CONTROL & STANDARD PRECAUTIONS
Q11. The single most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections is:
• A) Wearing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
• B) Hand hygiene
• C) Using engineering controls
• D) Isolating all patients
Answer: B) Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene remains the single most effective infection control measure in healthcare
settings. Alcohol-based hand rub is preferred unless hands are visibly soiled or the patient has C.
difficile infection .
Q12. Standard precautions apply to:
• A) Patients with known infections only
• B) Surgical patients only
• C) All patients, regardless of diagnosis
• D) Immunocompromised patients only
Answer: C) All patients, regardless of diagnosis
Rationale: Universal application prevents transmission from both known and unknown infections.
Standard precautions assume all blood and body fluids are potentially infectious .
Q13. Standard precautions require that you:
• A) Wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) at all times
• B) Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
• C) Consider all coworkers at risk
• D) Do not need to take special precautions
Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam – Part I, II & III |
Complete 2026 Updated Test Bank with Verified Questions &
Answers | Relias Nursing Assessment Prep, Compliance, Safety,
HIPAA, OSHA & Infection Control Review | Latest 2026/2027
Update | Graded A+
PART 1: PATIENT SAFETY & IDENTIFICATION
Q1. According to the National Patient Safety Goals, what is the most important method for
preventing patient identification errors?
• A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. Jones?"
• B) Use the patient's room number as identification
• C) Use two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
• D) Verify identity with a family member
Answer: C) Use two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
Rationale: The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals mandate the use of at least two
patient identifiers (never the room number) before any procedure, medication administration, or
blood specimen collection. This prevents misidentification errors and adverse events .
Q2. When must two patient identifiers be used?
• A) When admitting a patient
• B) When collecting a blood specimen
• C) When discharging a patient
• D) When transferring a patient
Answer: B) When collecting a blood specimen
Rationale: Two patient identifiers are required before collecting blood specimens, administering
medications, performing procedures, and administering blood products. This ensures the right
patient receives the right intervention .
Q3. What is the correct method to identify a patient prior to medication administration?
• A) Ask the patient, "Are you Mr. Jones?"
• B) Check the patient's room number
• C) Use the patient's name and date of birth
• D) Verify with a family member
Answer: C) Use the patient's name and date of birth
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
Rationale: Asking a closed question like "Are you Mr. Jones?" can lead to confirmation errors. Active
verification using two identifiers (name and date of birth) is the standard of care. Patient
confirmation and armband verification should both be performed .
Q4. According to the National Patient Safety Goals, acceptable patient identifiers include which of
the following?
• A) Patient's room number
• B) Patient's name and birthdate
• C) Patient's diagnosis
• D) Patient's attending physician
Answer: B) Patient's name and birthdate
Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals require at least two patient-specific identifiers. Room
numbers and diagnoses are not acceptable identifiers as they are not unique to the patient .
Q5. The Universal Protocol was developed to prevent:
• A) Medication errors
• B) Healthcare-associated infections
• C) Wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong person surgery
• D) Patient falls
Answer: C) Wrong site, wrong procedure, wrong person surgery
Rationale: The Universal Protocol was established by The Joint Commission to prevent surgical errors
by requiring pre-procedure verification, site marking, and a "time-out" before surgery .
PART 2: FALL PREVENTION & RESTRAINTS
Q6. To prevent falls, which measure is most effective?
• A) Keep bed in the highest position
• B) Apply restraints
• C) Keep bed in lowest position with call light within reach
• D) Turn off lights to promote sleep
Answer: C) Keep bed in lowest position with call light within reach
Rationale: Fall prevention involves environmental modifications including lowering beds, ensuring
call lights are accessible, providing toileting assistance, and hourly rounding. Restraints are a last
resort and not considered a primary fall prevention strategy .
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
Q7. A patient is at risk for falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
• A) Apply wrist restraints
• B) Perform hourly rounding and keep bed in low position
• C) Dim all lights completely
• D) Keep bed in high position
Answer: B) Perform hourly rounding and keep bed in low position
Rationale: The most effective fall prevention includes patient education, call light access, toileting
assistance, and hourly rounding. Restraints are a last resort requiring a physician order and frequent
assessment .
Q8. A nurse is assigned a patient in restraints. Which action is most important?
• A) Assess circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours
• B) Leave restraints in place for the entire shift
• C) Document once daily
• D) Use knots that cannot be untied
Answer: A) Assess circulation and skin integrity every 2 hours
Rationale: Patients in restraints require regular assessment of circulation, skin integrity, and
neurovascular status (every 1-2 hours). Restraints must be released periodically, and documentation
must include the reason for restraint and alternatives attempted .
Q9. Before applying restraints, what must the nurse do?
• A) Apply restraints tightly for security
• B) Exhaust less-restrictive measures and obtain a physician order
• C) Document after restraints are applied
• D) Inform the patient's family only
Answer: B) Exhaust less-restrictive measures and obtain a physician order
Rationale: Restraint use is tightly regulated. After exhausting less-restrictive measures, the nurse
must obtain a physician order and document the rationale. Restraints are a last resort, not a fall
prevention measure .
Q10. What is a key principle of safe restraint use?
• A) Restraints should be applied tightly for security
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY NURSING EXAM
• B) Regular checks for circulation and skin integrity
• C) Restraints can be applied without a physician order in emergencies
• D) Restraints should be left on until discharge
Answer: B) Regular checks for circulation and skin integrity
Rationale: Regular assessment prevents injury and ensures patient safety. The least restrictive
measures should always be used first .
PART 3: INFECTION CONTROL & STANDARD PRECAUTIONS
Q11. The single most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections is:
• A) Wearing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
• B) Hand hygiene
• C) Using engineering controls
• D) Isolating all patients
Answer: B) Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene remains the single most effective infection control measure in healthcare
settings. Alcohol-based hand rub is preferred unless hands are visibly soiled or the patient has C.
difficile infection .
Q12. Standard precautions apply to:
• A) Patients with known infections only
• B) Surgical patients only
• C) All patients, regardless of diagnosis
• D) Immunocompromised patients only
Answer: C) All patients, regardless of diagnosis
Rationale: Universal application prevents transmission from both known and unknown infections.
Standard precautions assume all blood and body fluids are potentially infectious .
Q13. Standard precautions require that you:
• A) Wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) at all times
• B) Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
• C) Consider all coworkers at risk
• D) Do not need to take special precautions
