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ADVANCED ONCOLOGY CERTIFIED NURSE PRACTITIONER (AOCNP) COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE

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ADVANCED ONCOLOGY CERTIFIED NURSE PRACTITIONER (AOCNP) COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE

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ADVANCED ONCOLOGY CERTIFIED
NURSE PRACTITIONER (AOCNP)
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE




1. Which of the following molecular mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development

of resistance to first-generation EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors, such as erlotinib, in non-

small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)?

A. KRAS G12C mutation


B. MET amplification


C. T790M mutation in exon 20


D. EML4-ALK rearrangement


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: The T790M mutation in exon 20 is the most common

mechanism of acquired resistance to first- and second-generation EGFR TKIs, occurring in

approximately 50-60% of cases.

,2. A patient undergoing treatment with an Immune Checkpoint Inhibitor (ICI) presents with

grade 3 immune-related colitis. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Continue ICI and start loperamide


B. Hold ICI and initiate oral prednisone 0.5 mg/kg/day


C. Hold ICI and start infliximab immediately


D. Permanently discontinue ICI and initiate IV methylprednisolone 1-2 mg/kg/day


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: For Grade 3 immune-related colitis, management includes

permanent discontinuation of the ICI and initiation of high-dose systemic corticosteroids

(IV methylprednisolone). If no improvement occurs within 48-72 hours, biologics like

infliximab may be considered.


3. Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) is characterized by which of the following metabolic

abnormalities?

A. Hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperphosphatemia


B. Hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperuricemia


C. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and hyperphosphatemia


D. Hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and hypouricemia


Answer: A

, Conceptual Explanation: TLS involves the rapid release of intracellular contents, leading

to hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and secondary hypocalcemia due to

calcium-phosphate binding.


4. In a patient with suspected Spinal Cord Compression (SCC), what is the immediate

pharmacological intervention to reduce peritumoral edema?

A. Furosemide 40 mg IV


B. Zoledronic acid 4 mg IV


C. Morphine 2 mg IV


D. Dexamethasone 10-16 mg IV bolus


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: High-dose corticosteroids (specifically Dexamethasone) are the

standard immediate treatment to reduce edema and protect neurological function while

awaiting definitive therapy like radiation or surgery.


5. Which genetic syndrome is associated with a germline mutation in the TP53 gene,

increasing the risk for early-onset breast cancer, sarcomas, and adrenocortical carcinomas?

A. Lynch Syndrome


B. Cowden Syndrome


C. Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome


D. Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

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