Barkley WHNP ACTUAL EXAM ALL
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Well-Woman Care & Health Promotion (Questions 1-15)
Question 1
A 24-year-old female requests her routine cervical cancer screening. What is the standard
protocol according to ASCCP guidelines?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Cytology with HPV co-testing every 3 years
D. Co-testing every 5 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ASCCP guidelines mandate cytology alone for ages 21-29. Primary HPV testing or co-
testing is avoided in this age group due to high transient viral clearance rates, which could lead
to unnecessary procedures .
Question 2
A 35-year-old female presents for a routine checkup. What is the preferred cervical cancer
screening strategy?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
,C. Co-testing every 10 years
D. Cytology every 5 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For ages 30-65, screening with primary HPV testing every 5 years or co-testing
(cytology + HPV) every 5 years provides optimal reassurance and sensitivity .
Question 3
A 22-year-old female's Pap result shows ASC-US (Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined
Significance). What is the next step?
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 12 months
C. Perform reflex HPV testing
D. Perform LEEP procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients aged 21-24, low-grade lesions frequently regress spontaneously. Repeat
cytology in 12 months minimizes unnecessary cervical procedures .
Question 4
A 27-year-old female presents with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) and a
positive HPV test. What is the appropriate next step?
A. Repeat Pap in 12 months
B. Immediate colposcopy
C. Perform LEEP procedure
D. Repeat Pap in 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women age 25 and older with LSIL and positive HPV, immediate colposcopy is
required to check for underlying high-grade dysplasia .
Question 5
A 40-year-old woman has a Pap smear showing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
(HSIL). What is the next best step?
,A. Repeat Pap smear in one year
B. Colposcopy with directed biopsy
C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HSIL on cervical cytology requires colposcopy with directed biopsy to obtain
histologic confirmation and rule out invasive cancer .
Question 6
A 45-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular menses. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Pregnancy
B. Perimenopause
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perimenopause is the transition to menopause and presents with vasomotor
symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats along with menstrual irregularity due to
declining ovarian function .
Question 7
A 50-year-old woman reports stress urinary incontinence with coughing and sneezing. What is
the first-line treatment?
A. Midurethral sling
B. Pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises)
C. Anticholinergic medication
D. Urethral bulking agents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic floor muscle training strengthens the pelvic floor and improves urethral
support, making it the first-line conservative treatment for stress urinary incontinence .
, Question 8
A 48-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a uterus enlarged to 14
weeks size. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids)
D. Ovarian mass
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine fibroids are the most common benign pelvic tumors in women and cause
heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pressure, and an enlarged uterus .
Question 9
Which of the following is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives in a 35-year-old
woman with hypertension?
A. Start combined oral contraceptives
B. Use a progestin-only method
C. Use the contraceptive patch
D. Use the vaginal ring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives containing estrogen increase the risk of stroke
and myocardial infarction in women with hypertension. Progestin-only methods are preferred .
Question 10
A 34-year-old premenopausal woman has a discrete, mobile, rubbery lump in her right breast.
She reports no pain and no nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure her that it is likely benign
B. Order a diagnostic mammogram and ultrasound
C. Schedule fine-needle aspiration in 6 months
D. Refer for genetic testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a woman ≥30 years with a palpable breast mass, the standard evaluation is a
diagnostic mammogram and targeted ultrasound to characterize the lesion .
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Well-Woman Care & Health Promotion (Questions 1-15)
Question 1
A 24-year-old female requests her routine cervical cancer screening. What is the standard
protocol according to ASCCP guidelines?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
C. Cytology with HPV co-testing every 3 years
D. Co-testing every 5 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ASCCP guidelines mandate cytology alone for ages 21-29. Primary HPV testing or co-
testing is avoided in this age group due to high transient viral clearance rates, which could lead
to unnecessary procedures .
Question 2
A 35-year-old female presents for a routine checkup. What is the preferred cervical cancer
screening strategy?
A. Cytology alone every 3 years
B. Primary HPV testing every 5 years
,C. Co-testing every 10 years
D. Cytology every 5 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For ages 30-65, screening with primary HPV testing every 5 years or co-testing
(cytology + HPV) every 5 years provides optimal reassurance and sensitivity .
Question 3
A 22-year-old female's Pap result shows ASC-US (Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined
Significance). What is the next step?
A. Immediate colposcopy
B. Repeat cytology in 12 months
C. Perform reflex HPV testing
D. Perform LEEP procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients aged 21-24, low-grade lesions frequently regress spontaneously. Repeat
cytology in 12 months minimizes unnecessary cervical procedures .
Question 4
A 27-year-old female presents with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) and a
positive HPV test. What is the appropriate next step?
A. Repeat Pap in 12 months
B. Immediate colposcopy
C. Perform LEEP procedure
D. Repeat Pap in 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For women age 25 and older with LSIL and positive HPV, immediate colposcopy is
required to check for underlying high-grade dysplasia .
Question 5
A 40-year-old woman has a Pap smear showing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
(HSIL). What is the next best step?
,A. Repeat Pap smear in one year
B. Colposcopy with directed biopsy
C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
D. Hysterectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HSIL on cervical cytology requires colposcopy with directed biopsy to obtain
histologic confirmation and rule out invasive cancer .
Question 6
A 45-year-old woman reports hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular menses. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Pregnancy
B. Perimenopause
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perimenopause is the transition to menopause and presents with vasomotor
symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats along with menstrual irregularity due to
declining ovarian function .
Question 7
A 50-year-old woman reports stress urinary incontinence with coughing and sneezing. What is
the first-line treatment?
A. Midurethral sling
B. Pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises)
C. Anticholinergic medication
D. Urethral bulking agents
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic floor muscle training strengthens the pelvic floor and improves urethral
support, making it the first-line conservative treatment for stress urinary incontinence .
, Question 8
A 48-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a uterus enlarged to 14
weeks size. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Adenomyosis
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids)
D. Ovarian mass
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Uterine fibroids are the most common benign pelvic tumors in women and cause
heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pressure, and an enlarged uterus .
Question 9
Which of the following is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives in a 35-year-old
woman with hypertension?
A. Start combined oral contraceptives
B. Use a progestin-only method
C. Use the contraceptive patch
D. Use the vaginal ring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives containing estrogen increase the risk of stroke
and myocardial infarction in women with hypertension. Progestin-only methods are preferred .
Question 10
A 34-year-old premenopausal woman has a discrete, mobile, rubbery lump in her right breast.
She reports no pain and no nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure her that it is likely benign
B. Order a diagnostic mammogram and ultrasound
C. Schedule fine-needle aspiration in 6 months
D. Refer for genetic testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a woman ≥30 years with a palpable breast mass, the standard evaluation is a
diagnostic mammogram and targeted ultrasound to characterize the lesion .
