CHAMBERLAIN NR 511 FINAL EXAM
BUNDLE Complete Practice Questions
with Answers & Detailed Rationales
2026/2027 Edition
EXAM SET 1: DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS &
PRIMARY CARE (Weeks 1-4)
Question 1:
A 13-year-old obese boy (BMI above the 95th
percentile) reports low-grade left knee pain for the
past 2 months. He denies trauma but admits to
frequent "horseplay" with friends. The pain has
progressively worsened, and he is now unable to
bear weight on his left leg. He reports left groin,
1
,thigh, and medial knee pain. Examination
demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and
McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal
rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation
with knee flexion. What should the NP suspect?
A) Left meniscal tear
B) Left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
D) Osgood-Schlatter disease
Answer: C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
(SCFE)
Rationale: SCFE typically presents in obese
adolescents with hip, groin, thigh, or referred knee
pain. Key examination findings include decreased
internal rotation and abduction of the hip, and
external rotation with knee flexion. Referred knee
pain is a common presentation in this population.
2
,Negative knee-specific tests (Lachman, drawer,
McMurray) help rule out primary knee pathology .
Question 2:
In assessing skeletal muscles, the NP turns the
patient's forearm so that the palm is up. This
movement is called:
A) Supination
B) Pronation
C) Abduction
D) Eversion
Answer: A) Supination
3
, Rationale: Supination is the movement of turning the
forearm so the palm faces upward or anteriorly.
Pronation is the opposite movement (palm down).
Abduction refers to moving away from midline, and
eversion refers to turning the sole of the foot
outward .
Question 3:
A 67-year-old female tells the NP that she has been
diagnosed with a condition that causes sudden flares
of pain, swelling, and redness of the joints in her
toes. She cannot remember the name but knows it is
caused by urate crystals. She is on
hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for hypertension. The
NP should suspect:
A) Septic arthritis
B) Gout
4
BUNDLE Complete Practice Questions
with Answers & Detailed Rationales
2026/2027 Edition
EXAM SET 1: DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS &
PRIMARY CARE (Weeks 1-4)
Question 1:
A 13-year-old obese boy (BMI above the 95th
percentile) reports low-grade left knee pain for the
past 2 months. He denies trauma but admits to
frequent "horseplay" with friends. The pain has
progressively worsened, and he is now unable to
bear weight on his left leg. He reports left groin,
1
,thigh, and medial knee pain. Examination
demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and
McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal
rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation
with knee flexion. What should the NP suspect?
A) Left meniscal tear
B) Left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
D) Osgood-Schlatter disease
Answer: C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
(SCFE)
Rationale: SCFE typically presents in obese
adolescents with hip, groin, thigh, or referred knee
pain. Key examination findings include decreased
internal rotation and abduction of the hip, and
external rotation with knee flexion. Referred knee
pain is a common presentation in this population.
2
,Negative knee-specific tests (Lachman, drawer,
McMurray) help rule out primary knee pathology .
Question 2:
In assessing skeletal muscles, the NP turns the
patient's forearm so that the palm is up. This
movement is called:
A) Supination
B) Pronation
C) Abduction
D) Eversion
Answer: A) Supination
3
, Rationale: Supination is the movement of turning the
forearm so the palm faces upward or anteriorly.
Pronation is the opposite movement (palm down).
Abduction refers to moving away from midline, and
eversion refers to turning the sole of the foot
outward .
Question 3:
A 67-year-old female tells the NP that she has been
diagnosed with a condition that causes sudden flares
of pain, swelling, and redness of the joints in her
toes. She cannot remember the name but knows it is
caused by urate crystals. She is on
hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for hypertension. The
NP should suspect:
A) Septic arthritis
B) Gout
4
