ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR RN EXAM – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES |
GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE |
PRACTICE TEST
CORE DOMAINS
• Fundamentals of Nursing and Safety
• Pharmacology and Medication Administration
• Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing
• Maternal-Newborn Nursing
• Pediatric Nursing
• Mental Health Nursing
• Leadership, Management, and Delegation
• Health Assessment and Clinical Judgment
• Infection Prevention and Control
• Nutrition and Health Promotion
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Comprehensive Predictor RN Exam assesses a broad range of nursing knowledge and
clinical judgment expected of entry-level registered nurses. Candidates must demonstrate safe
patient care, recognize changes in clinical status, prioritize interventions, administer medications
appropriately, communicate effectively, and apply evidence-based nursing principles. This
practice test combines foundational knowledge with realistic clinical scenarios to strengthen
decision-making and prioritization skills. Scenario-based questions encourage candidates to
connect assessment findings with appropriate nursing actions rather than rely solely on
memorized facts. Reviewing the rationales is especially valuable because understanding why an
intervention is appropriate helps build clinical reasoning that can be transferred to unfamiliar
situations.
SECTION ONE
QUESTIONS 1–50
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from abdominal surgery. Which
finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
A. Incisional pain rated 6 out of 10
B. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
,Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates impaired oxygenation and requires prompt
assessment and intervention. Pain, temperature, and urine output described here are less
immediately concerning.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client. Which action is most
important for preventing a medication error?
A. Compare the medication label with the medication administration record
B. Ask another nurse to administer the medication
C. Document the medication before giving it
D. Place the medication at the client's bedside
A. Compare the medication label with the medication administration record
Rationale: Comparing the medication label with the medication administration record helps
verify the prescribed medication before administration. Documentation should occur after
administration, and medications should not be left unattended at the bedside unless specifically
appropriate.
3. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and has bilateral
crackles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Assist the client to ambulate
D. Prepare the client for discharge
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and can decrease the work of breathing
in a client experiencing pulmonary congestion. Fluid intake and ambulation could worsen the
client's condition.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy. Which laboratory test should the
nurse monitor?
A. Serum amylase
B. Troponin
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Prothrombin time and INR
D. Prothrombin time and INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored primarily using prothrombin time and the
international normalized ratio (INR). These values help determine whether anticoagulation is
within the prescribed therapeutic range.
, 5. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, and shaky. The client's blood
glucose is 54 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer rapid-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict the client's oral intake
D. Administer the client's scheduled long-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia should receive approximately 15 g
of a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of blood glucose. Insulin would
further lower the glucose level.
6. A nurse is teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer after surgery. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Exhale forcefully into the device."
B. "Use the device once each morning."
C. "Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece."
D. "Breathe rapidly through the mouthpiece."
C. "Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece."
Rationale: An incentive spirometer promotes sustained maximal inspiration, helping prevent
atelectasis. The client should inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece rather than
exhale into it.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridioides difficile infection. Which infection-
control measure is appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after removing gloves
B. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
C. Use contact precautions and wash hands with soap and water
D. Use only a surgical mask when entering the room
C. Use contact precautions and wash hands with soap and water
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Contact precautions
and thorough handwashing with soap and water are important measures for reducing
transmission.
8. A postoperative client suddenly reports severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. The
client appears anxious and has a heart rate of 124/min. Which complication should the
nurse suspect?
, A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Constipation
C. Urinary retention
D. Wound infection
A. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and anxiety in a postoperative client are
concerning for pulmonary embolism. This is an emergency requiring immediate assessment and
intervention.
9. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after
initiation, the client develops chills, fever, and low back pain. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer the next scheduled medication
D. Reassure the client that the symptoms are expected
B. Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain can indicate an acute transfusion reaction. The nurse
should stop the transfusion immediately and follow the facility's transfusion-reaction protocol.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected stroke. Which finding is most consistent with
an acute stroke?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Gradual improvement in visual acuity
C. Sudden unilateral weakness
D. Increased appetite
C. Sudden unilateral weakness
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits such as unilateral weakness, facial drooping, speech
changes, or visual disturbances are classic warning signs of acute stroke and require immediate
evaluation.
11. A client taking furosemide reports muscle weakness. Which laboratory value should the
nurse review first?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES |
GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE |
PRACTICE TEST
CORE DOMAINS
• Fundamentals of Nursing and Safety
• Pharmacology and Medication Administration
• Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing
• Maternal-Newborn Nursing
• Pediatric Nursing
• Mental Health Nursing
• Leadership, Management, and Delegation
• Health Assessment and Clinical Judgment
• Infection Prevention and Control
• Nutrition and Health Promotion
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Comprehensive Predictor RN Exam assesses a broad range of nursing knowledge and
clinical judgment expected of entry-level registered nurses. Candidates must demonstrate safe
patient care, recognize changes in clinical status, prioritize interventions, administer medications
appropriately, communicate effectively, and apply evidence-based nursing principles. This
practice test combines foundational knowledge with realistic clinical scenarios to strengthen
decision-making and prioritization skills. Scenario-based questions encourage candidates to
connect assessment findings with appropriate nursing actions rather than rely solely on
memorized facts. Reviewing the rationales is especially valuable because understanding why an
intervention is appropriate helps build clinical reasoning that can be transferred to unfamiliar
situations.
SECTION ONE
QUESTIONS 1–50
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from abdominal surgery. Which
finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
A. Incisional pain rated 6 out of 10
B. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
C. Oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
,Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates impaired oxygenation and requires prompt
assessment and intervention. Pain, temperature, and urine output described here are less
immediately concerning.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication to a client. Which action is most
important for preventing a medication error?
A. Compare the medication label with the medication administration record
B. Ask another nurse to administer the medication
C. Document the medication before giving it
D. Place the medication at the client's bedside
A. Compare the medication label with the medication administration record
Rationale: Comparing the medication label with the medication administration record helps
verify the prescribed medication before administration. Documentation should occur after
administration, and medications should not be left unattended at the bedside unless specifically
appropriate.
3. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and has bilateral
crackles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
C. Assist the client to ambulate
D. Prepare the client for discharge
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and can decrease the work of breathing
in a client experiencing pulmonary congestion. Fluid intake and ambulation could worsen the
client's condition.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy. Which laboratory test should the
nurse monitor?
A. Serum amylase
B. Troponin
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Prothrombin time and INR
D. Prothrombin time and INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored primarily using prothrombin time and the
international normalized ratio (INR). These values help determine whether anticoagulation is
within the prescribed therapeutic range.
, 5. A client with diabetes mellitus is awake, diaphoretic, and shaky. The client's blood
glucose is 54 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer rapid-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict the client's oral intake
D. Administer the client's scheduled long-acting insulin
B. Give 15 g of a rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: A conscious client with symptomatic hypoglycemia should receive approximately 15 g
of a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of blood glucose. Insulin would
further lower the glucose level.
6. A nurse is teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer after surgery. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. "Exhale forcefully into the device."
B. "Use the device once each morning."
C. "Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece."
D. "Breathe rapidly through the mouthpiece."
C. "Inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece."
Rationale: An incentive spirometer promotes sustained maximal inspiration, helping prevent
atelectasis. The client should inhale slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece rather than
exhale into it.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has Clostridioides difficile infection. Which infection-
control measure is appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer after removing gloves
B. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
C. Use contact precautions and wash hands with soap and water
D. Use only a surgical mask when entering the room
C. Use contact precautions and wash hands with soap and water
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Contact precautions
and thorough handwashing with soap and water are important measures for reducing
transmission.
8. A postoperative client suddenly reports severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. The
client appears anxious and has a heart rate of 124/min. Which complication should the
nurse suspect?
, A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Constipation
C. Urinary retention
D. Wound infection
A. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, and anxiety in a postoperative client are
concerning for pulmonary embolism. This is an emergency requiring immediate assessment and
intervention.
9. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. Fifteen minutes after
initiation, the client develops chills, fever, and low back pain. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer the next scheduled medication
D. Reassure the client that the symptoms are expected
B. Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and back pain can indicate an acute transfusion reaction. The nurse
should stop the transfusion immediately and follow the facility's transfusion-reaction protocol.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected stroke. Which finding is most consistent with
an acute stroke?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Gradual improvement in visual acuity
C. Sudden unilateral weakness
D. Increased appetite
C. Sudden unilateral weakness
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits such as unilateral weakness, facial drooping, speech
changes, or visual disturbances are classic warning signs of acute stroke and require immediate
evaluation.
11. A client taking furosemide reports muscle weakness. Which laboratory value should the
nurse review first?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Platelet count
