NUR 230 OB/Peds Childbearing/Child-Caring Family
Exam 1 2026/2027 Practice Test Questions With
Correct Answers And Rationale
Question 1.
A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a client at 10 weeks gestation. The
client reports breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and fatigue. The nurse notes a
positive urine hCG test and a softened cervix upon examination. Which of the
following best categorizes these findings?
A. All are presumptive signs of pregnancy.
B. Urinary frequency and fatigue are positive signs; the rest are presumptive.
C. The softened cervix and positive hCG are probable signs; the rest are presumptive.
D. All are probable signs of pregnancy except the positive hCG, which is a positive sign.
[Correct Answer:] C
[Rationale:]
Presumptive signs (subjective) include breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and fatigue.
Probable signs (objective, strong indicators) include a softened cervix (Goodell's sign)
and a positive pregnancy test. Positive signs (definitive) include fetal heartbeat
visualization or fetal movement felt by the examiner. Answer C correctly categorizes
these findings.
Question 2.
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule for
a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. What is the correct
EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. January 3
D. January 17
[Correct Answer:] B
,[Rationale:]
Nägele's rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the LMP and adding 7 days.
March 10 minus 3 months is December 10. December 10 plus 7 days equals December
17. Answer B is correct.
Question 3.
A client at 37 weeks gestation is admitted with blood pressure of 154/98 mmHg
and 3+ protein in her urine. She reports a severe headache and visual changes.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent a life-
threatening complication?
A. Nifedipine
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Labetalol
D. Calcium gluconate
[Correct Answer:] B
[Rationale:]
The client is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia (hypertension, proteinuria,
headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent seizures
(eclampsia). Nifedipine and labetalol are antihypertensives but do not prevent seizures.
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, not the treatment itself.
Question 4.
A nurse is assessing a newborn infant immediately after birth. Which finding
would be most concerning and require immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 140 bpm
B. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
C. Respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and grunting
D. A single loose, greenish-black stool
[Correct Answer:] C
, [Rationale:]
A respiratory rate of 68 with nasal flaring and grunting indicates respiratory distress in a
newborn. Normal respiratory rate is 30-60 breaths/min. Nasal flaring and grunting are
signs of increased work of breathing and potential respiratory compromise. A heart rate
of 140 is normal; acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours; and meconium stool is
expected in the first 24-48 hours.
Question 5.
A 4-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. Which
developmental milestone should the nurse expect this infant to have achieved?
A. Sitting up without support
B. Rolling from back to abdomen
C. Pincer grasp
D. Walking while holding onto furniture
[Correct Answer:] B
[Rationale:]
By 4-6 months, an infant typically learns to roll from back to abdomen. Sitting without
support occurs at 6-8 months. Pincer grasp develops around 9-10 months. Cruising
(walking while holding furniture) occurs at 10-12 months.
Question 6.
A nurse is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant. Which
vaccines should be administered at this visit according to the standard CDC
schedule?
A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, RV
B. DTaP, MMR, Varicella
C. HepB, DTaP, IPV
D. Hib, PCV13, MMR, HepA
[Correct Answer:] A
Exam 1 2026/2027 Practice Test Questions With
Correct Answers And Rationale
Question 1.
A nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a client at 10 weeks gestation. The
client reports breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and fatigue. The nurse notes a
positive urine hCG test and a softened cervix upon examination. Which of the
following best categorizes these findings?
A. All are presumptive signs of pregnancy.
B. Urinary frequency and fatigue are positive signs; the rest are presumptive.
C. The softened cervix and positive hCG are probable signs; the rest are presumptive.
D. All are probable signs of pregnancy except the positive hCG, which is a positive sign.
[Correct Answer:] C
[Rationale:]
Presumptive signs (subjective) include breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and fatigue.
Probable signs (objective, strong indicators) include a softened cervix (Goodell's sign)
and a positive pregnancy test. Positive signs (definitive) include fetal heartbeat
visualization or fetal movement felt by the examiner. Answer C correctly categorizes
these findings.
Question 2.
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule for
a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. What is the correct
EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. January 3
D. January 17
[Correct Answer:] B
,[Rationale:]
Nägele's rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the LMP and adding 7 days.
March 10 minus 3 months is December 10. December 10 plus 7 days equals December
17. Answer B is correct.
Question 3.
A client at 37 weeks gestation is admitted with blood pressure of 154/98 mmHg
and 3+ protein in her urine. She reports a severe headache and visual changes.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent a life-
threatening complication?
A. Nifedipine
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Labetalol
D. Calcium gluconate
[Correct Answer:] B
[Rationale:]
The client is exhibiting signs of severe preeclampsia (hypertension, proteinuria,
headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent seizures
(eclampsia). Nifedipine and labetalol are antihypertensives but do not prevent seizures.
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, not the treatment itself.
Question 4.
A nurse is assessing a newborn infant immediately after birth. Which finding
would be most concerning and require immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 140 bpm
B. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
C. Respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and grunting
D. A single loose, greenish-black stool
[Correct Answer:] C
, [Rationale:]
A respiratory rate of 68 with nasal flaring and grunting indicates respiratory distress in a
newborn. Normal respiratory rate is 30-60 breaths/min. Nasal flaring and grunting are
signs of increased work of breathing and potential respiratory compromise. A heart rate
of 140 is normal; acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours; and meconium stool is
expected in the first 24-48 hours.
Question 5.
A 4-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. Which
developmental milestone should the nurse expect this infant to have achieved?
A. Sitting up without support
B. Rolling from back to abdomen
C. Pincer grasp
D. Walking while holding onto furniture
[Correct Answer:] B
[Rationale:]
By 4-6 months, an infant typically learns to roll from back to abdomen. Sitting without
support occurs at 6-8 months. Pincer grasp develops around 9-10 months. Cruising
(walking while holding furniture) occurs at 10-12 months.
Question 6.
A nurse is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant. Which
vaccines should be administered at this visit according to the standard CDC
schedule?
A. DTaP, IPV, Hib, PCV13, RV
B. DTaP, MMR, Varicella
C. HepB, DTaP, IPV
D. Hib, PCV13, MMR, HepA
[Correct Answer:] A
