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TNCC HIGH-LEVEL ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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TNCC HIGH-LEVEL ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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TNCC HIGH-LEVEL ASSESSMENT
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS




1. During the primary survey of a trauma patient, which assessment finding is the most

immediate priority for intervention?

A. Distended neck veins


B. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12


C. Capillary refill of 4 seconds


D. Snoring respirations


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Snoring respirations indicate a partial airway obstruction, which

is the ‘A’ in the ABCDE primary survey. Airway always takes priority over circulation or

disability findings.


2. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) presents with a blood pressure of 160/60

mmHg, a heart rate of 48 bpm, and irregular respirations. What does this triad indicate?

A. Beck’s Triad


B. Virchow’s Triad

,C. Cushing’s Triad


D. Trauma Triad of Death


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Cushing’s Triad (widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and

irregular respirations) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure and impending

herniation.


3. In a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture who is hemodynamically unstable, what is the

priority intervention after the primary survey?

A. Immediate pelvic X-ray


B. Log-rolling to check for back injuries


C. Insertion of a Foley catheter


D. Application of a pelvic binder


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: A pelvic binder stabilizes the fracture and reduces pelvic volume

to control venous bleeding. Log-rolling is contraindicated in suspected pelvic fractures.


4. Which classification of shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance

(SVR) and an increase in cardiac output?

A. Hypovolemic shock


B. Early septic shock

, C. Neurogenic shock


D. Cardiogenic shock


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Early (hyperdynamic) septic shock involves vasodilation leading

to decreased SVR and a compensatory increase in cardiac output. Neurogenic shock

typically features low HR and low SVR.


5. A patient sustains a fall and presents with ‘raccoon eyes’ and Battle’s sign. Which

diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the underlying injury?

A. Lumbar puncture


B. Non-contrast CT head


C. Skull X-ray


D. Cerebral angiography


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Raccoon eyes and Battle’s sign indicate a basilar skull fracture. A

non-contrast CT head is the gold standard for identifying fractures and associated

intracranial hemorrhage.


6. When managing a patient with a flail chest, what is the primary cause of the associated

hypoxia?

A. Paradoxical chest wall movement

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